ELEMENT 2

NOVICE QUESTION POOL

Page author: vec@arrl.org Page last revised 8:56 AM ET 6/3/97

* To obtain a copy of the graphics references that are to be used
with this question pool, send a business sized SASE to the 
ARRL/VEC, 225 Main St, Newington CT 06111. Request the "1997 
Novice/Technician Question Pool Graphics".


* The questions contained within this pool must be used in all 
Novice examinations beginning July 1, 1997 and is intended to 
be used up through June 30, 2001.


* The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis 
following each question number [eg, in N1A01 (A), position A 
contains the correct answer text].


Question Pool
ELEMENT 2 - NOVICE CLASS
as released by
Question Pool Committee
National Conference of 
Volunteer Examiner Coordinators



        December 1, 1996



SUBELEMENT N1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES 
[10 Exam Questions -- 10 Groups]



    



N1A  Basis and purpose of amateur service and definitions

N1A01 (A) [97]
What document contains the rules and regulations for the amateur 
service in the US?
A.  Part 97 of Title 47 CFR (Code of Federal Regulations)
B.  The Communications Act of 1934 (as amended)
C.  The Radio Amateur's Handbook
D.  The minutes of the International Telecommunication Union 
    meetings

N1A02 (B) [97]
Who makes and enforces the rules and regulations of the amateur 
service in the US?
A.  The Congress of the United States
B.  The Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
C.  The Volunteer Examiner Coordinators (VECs)
D.  The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

N1A03 (A) [97]
Which three topics are part of the rules and regulations of the 
amateur service?
A.  Station operation standards, technical standards, emergency 
communications
B.  Notices of Violation, common operating procedures, antenna 
lengths
C.  Frequency band plans, repeater locations, Ohm's Law
D.  Station construction standards, FCC approved radios, FCC 
approved antennas

N1A04 (D) [97]
Which of these topics is NOT part of the rules and regulations of 
the amateur service?
A.  Qualifying examination systems
B.  Technical standards
C.  Providing emergency communications
D.  Station construction standards

N1A05 (A) [97.1]
What are three reasons that the amateur service exists?
A.  To recognize the value of emergency communications, advance 
the radio art, and improve communication and technical skills
B.  To learn about business communications, increase testing by 
trained technicians, and improve amateur communications
C.  To preserve old radio techniques, maintain a pool of people 
familiar with early tube-type equipment, and improve tube radios
D.  To improve patriotism, preserve nationalism, and promote world 
peace 



     



N1A06 (D) [97.1]



What are two of the five purposes for the amateur service?



A.  To protect historical radio data, and help the public 



understand radio history



B.  To help foreign countries improve communication and technical 



skills, and encourage visits from foreign hams



C.  To modernize radio schematic drawings, and increase the pool 



of electrical drafting people



D.  To increase the number of trained radio operators and 



electronics experts, and improve international goodwill



    



N1A07 (B) [97.3a1]



What is the definition of an amateur operator?



A.  A person who has not received any training in radio operations



B.  A person to whom the FCC has granted a license in the amateur 



service 



C.  A person who has very little practice operating a radio 



station



D.  A person who is in training to become the control operator of 



a radio station



    



N1A08 (C) [97.3a4]



What is the definition of the amateur service?



A.  A private radio service used for profit and public benefit



B.  A public radio service for US citizens that requires no exam



C.  A personal radio service used for self-training, 



communication, and technical studies



D.  A private radio service used for self-training of radio 



announcers and technicians



      



N1A09 (D) [97.3a5]



What is the definition of an amateur station?



A.  A station in a public radio service used for 



radiocommunications



B.  A station using radiocommunications for a commercial purpose



C.  A station using equipment for training new radiocommunications 



operators



D.  A station in the Amateur Radio service used for 



radiocommunications



      



N1A10 (C) [97.3a12]



What is the definition of a control operator of an amateur 



station?



A.  Anyone who operates the controls of the station



B.  Anyone who is responsible for the station's equipment



C.  Any licensed amateur operator who is responsible for the 



station's transmissions



D.  The amateur operator with the highest class of license who is 



near the controls of the station



     



N1A11 (C) [97.509a] 



What is a Volunteer Examiner (VE)?



A.  A certified instructor who volunteers to examine amateur 



teaching manuals



B.  An FCC employee who accredits volunteers to administer amateur 



license exams



C.  An amateur, accredited by one or more VECs, who volunteers to 



administer amateur license exams



D.  An amateur, registered with the Electronic Industries 



Association, who volunteers to examine amateur station equipment



      


N1B  Station/Operator license; classes of US amateur licenses, 



including basic differences and privileges of the various license 



classes



      



N1B01 (D) [97.5a] 



Which of the following must you have an amateur license to do?



A.  Transmit on public-service frequencies



B.  Retransmit shortwave broadcasts



C.  Repair broadcast station equipment



D.  Transmit on amateur service frequencies



    



N1B02 (B) [97.5a]



What does an amateur license allow you to control?



A.  A shortwave-broadcast station's transmissions



B.  An amateur station's transmissions



C.  Non-commercial FM broadcast transmissions



D.  Any type of transmitter, as long as it is used for non-



commercial transmissions



      



N1B03 (C) [97.5a] 



Which of the following is required before you can operate an 



amateur station in the US?



A.  You must hold an FCC operator's training permit for a licensed 



radio station



B.  You must submit an FCC Form 610 together with a license 



examination fee



C.  The FCC must grant you an amateur operator/primary station 



license



D.  The FCC must issue you a Certificate of Successful Completion 



of Amateur Training







N1B04 (B) [97.5d]



Where does a US amateur license allow you to operate?



A.  Anywhere in the world



B.  Wherever the amateur service is regulated by the FCC



C.  Within 50 km of your primary station location



D.  Only at the mailing address printed on your license







N1B05 (C) [97.5d]



How many transmitters may a Novice licensee control at the same 



time?



A.  Only one



B.  No more than two



C.  Any number



D.  Any number, as long as they are transmitting in different 



bands



    



N1B06 (A) [97.9a]  



What must happen before you are allowed to operate an amateur 



station?



A.  The FCC database must show that you have been granted an 



amateur license



B.  You must have written authorization from the FCC



C.  You must have written authorization from a Volunteer Examiner 



Coordinator



D.  You must have a copy of the FCC Rules, Part 97, at your 



station location







N1B07 (C) [97.7] 



Which one of the following does NOT allow a person to control a US 



amateur station?



A.  An operator/primary station license from the FCC



B.  A reciprocal permit from the FCC for alien amateur licensee



C.  An amateur service license from the United Nations Secretary 



of Communications



D.  An amateur service license from the Government of Canada, if 



it is held by a Canadian citizen



      



N1B08 (C) [97.5b1]  



What is the FCC's full name for an amateur station license?



A.  Restricted operating permit



B.  General radiotelephone operator license



C.  Amateur operator/primary station license



D.  Amateur telegraphers radio station permit



      



N1B09 (A) [97.3a11]  



What document indicates your amateur station call sign?



A.  Your operator/primary station license



B.  The FCC's rules and regulations (Part 97)



C.  None; you may choose any call sign you want



D.  FCC Form 610, Application for Amateur License



     



N1B10 (D) [97.9a] 



What are the six US amateur operator license classes?



A.  Beginner, Novice, Communicator, General, Advanced, Expert



B.  Novice, Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced, Expert



C.  Communicator, Novice, Digital, Technician, General, Amateur 



Extra



D.  Novice, Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced, 



Amateur Extra



     



N1B11 (A) [97.9]



What does the FCC consider to be the first two classes of US 



amateur operator licenses (one or the other of which most new 



amateurs initially hold)?



A.  Novice and Technician



B.  CB and Communicator



C.  Novice and General



D.  CB and Novice



     



N1B12 (D) [97.301, 97.305]  



Which of the following would NOT be a new privilege if you 



upgraded your license class beyond the Novice level?



A.  More operating frequencies



B.  Higher transmitting power



C.  Authority to prepare amateur license exams



D.  Authority to send third-party messages



     



N1B13 (D) [97.501e]



Which US amateur license has no Morse code requirements?



A.  Amateur Extra



B.  Advanced



C.  General



D.  Technician



     



N1C  Novice control operator frequency privileges



     



N1C01 (B) [97.301e]



What are the frequency limits of the 80-meter Novice band?



A.  3500 - 4000 kHz



B.  3675 - 3725 kHz



C.  7100 - 7150 kHz



D.  7000 - 7300 kHz



     



N1C02 (C) [97.301e]



What are the frequency limits of the 40-meter Novice band in ITU 



Region 2?



A.  3500 - 4000 kHz



B.  3700 - 3750 kHz



C.  7100 - 7150 kHz



D.  7000 - 7300 kHz



     



N1C03 (A) [97.301e]



What are the frequency limits of the 15-meter Novice band?



A.  21.100 - 21.200 MHz



B.  21.000 - 21.450 MHz



C.  28.000 - 29.700 MHz



D.  28.100 - 28.200 MHz



      



N1C04 (C) [97.301e]



What are the frequency limits of the 10-meter Novice band?



A.  28.000 - 28.500 MHz



B.  28.100 - 29.500 MHz



C.  28.100 - 28.500 MHz



D.  29.100 - 29.500 MHz



     



N1C05 (B) [97.301f] 



What are the frequency limits of the 1.25-meter Novice band in ITU 



Region 2?



A.  225.0 - 230.5 MHz



B.  222.0 - 225.0 MHz



C.  224.1 - 225.1 MHz



D.  220.0 - 226.0 MHz



     



N1C06 (C) [97.301f]



What are the frequency limits of the 23-centimeter Novice band?



A.  1260 - 1270 MHz



B.  1240 - 1300 MHz



C.  1270 - 1295 MHz



D.  1240 - 1246 MHz



     



N1C07 (A) [97.301e] 



If you are operating on 3710 kHz, in what amateur band are you 



operating?



A.  80 meters



B.  40 meters



C.  15 meters



D.  10 meters



     



N1C08 (B) [97.301e] 



If you are operating on 7135 kHz, in what amateur band are you 



operating?



A.  80 meters



B.  40 meters



C.  15 meters



D.  10 meters



     



N1C09 (C) [97.301e] 



If you are operating on 21.165 MHz, in what amateur band are you 



operating?



A.  80 meters



B.  40 meters



C.  15 meters



D.  10 meters



     



N1C10 (D) [97.301e] 



If you are operating on 28.400 MHz, in what amateur band are you 



operating?



A.  80 meters



B.  40 meters



C.  15 meters



D.  10 meters



     



N1C11 (D) [97.301f] 



If you are operating on 223.50 MHz, in what amateur band are you 



operating?



A.  15 meters



B.  10 meters



C.  2 meters



D.  1.25 meters



     



N1D  Novice eligibility, exam elements, mailing addresses, US 



call-sign assignment and life of license



     



N1D01 (A) [97.5b1]



Who can become an amateur licensee in the US?



A.  Anyone except a representative of a foreign government



B.  Only a citizen of the United States



C.  Anyone except an employee of the US government



D.  Anyone



     



N1D02 (D) [97.5b1]



What age must you be to hold an amateur license?



A.  14 years or older



B.  18 years or older



C.  70 years or younger



D.  There are no age limits



    



N1D03 (C) [97.501e]



What minimum examinations must you pass for a Novice amateur 



license?



A.  A written exam, Element 1(A); and a 5-WPM code exam, Element 



2(A)



B.  A 5-WPM code exam, Element 1(A); and a written exam, Element 



3(A)



C.  A 5-WPM code exam, Element 1(A); and a written exam, Element 2



D.  A written exam, Element 2; and a 5 WPM code exam, Element 4



     



N1D04 (B) [97.23] 



Why must an amateur operator have a current US postal mailing 



address?



A.  So the FCC has a record of the location of each amateur 



station



B.  To follow the FCC rules and so the licensee can receive mail 



from the FCC



C.  Because all US amateurs must be US residents



D.  So the FCC can publish a call-sign directory



    



N1D05 (D) [97.29] 



What can you do to replace your license document if it is lost, 



mutilated or destroyed?



A.  Nothing; the FCC does not replace license documents



B.  Send a change of address request to the FCC using a current 



FCC Form 610



C.  Retake all examination elements for your license



D.  Ask the FCC for a replacement, explaining what happened to the 



original



    



N1D06 (B) [97.23b]



What must you do to notify the FCC if your mailing address 



changes?



A.  Fill out an FCC Form 610 using your new address, attach a copy 



of your license, and mail it to your local FCC Field Office



B.  Fill out an FCC Form 610 using your new address, attach a copy 



of your license, and mail it to the FCC office in Gettysburg, PA 



C.  Call your local FCC Field Office and give them your new 



address over the phone



D.  Call the FCC office in Gettysburg, PA, and give them your new 



address over the phone



     



N1D07 (C) [No Part 97 Ref.] 



Which of the following call signs is a valid US amateur call?



A.  UZ4FWD



B.  KBL7766



C.  KA1TMJ



D.  VE3BKJ



     



N1D08 (B) [No Part 97 Ref.]



What letters must be used for the first letter in US amateur call 



signs?



A.  K, N, U and W



B.  A, K, N and W



C.  A, B, C and D



D.  A, N, V and W



    



N1D09 (D) [No Part 97 Ref.]



What numbers are normally used in US amateur call signs?



A.  Any two-digit number, 10 through 99



B.  Any two-digit number, 22 through 45



C.  A single digit, 1 though 9



D.  A single digit, 0 through 9



    



N1D10 (C) [97.25] 



For how many years is a new amateur license normally issued?



A.  2



B.  5



C.  10



D.  15



    



N1D11 (A) [97.21a3i] 



How soon before the expiration date of your license should you 



send the FCC a completed Form 610 for a renewal?



A.  No more than 90 days



B.  No more than 30 days



C.  Within 6 to 9 months



D.  Within 6 months to a year



      



N1D12 (C) [97.5a] 



How soon after you pass the elements required for your first 



Amateur Radio license may you transmit?



A.  Immediately



B.  30 days after the test date



C.  As soon as the FCC grants you a license



D.  As soon as you receive your license from the FCC



     



N1E  Novice control operator emission privileges



      



N1E01 (A) [97.305, 97.307f9]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use in 



the 80-meter band?



A.  CW only



B.  Data only



C.  RTTY only



D.  Phone only



      



N1E02 (A) [97.305, 97.307f9]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use in 



the 40-meter band?



A.  CW only



B.  Data only



C.  RTTY only



D.  Phone only



      



N1E03 (A) [97.305, 97.307f9]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use in 



the 15-meter band?



A.  CW only



B.  Data only



C.  RTTY only



D.  Phone only



     



N1E04 (D) [97.305, 97.307f9]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use 



from 3675 to 3725 kHz?



A.  Phone only



B.  Image only



C.  Data only



D.  CW only



      



N1E05 (D) [97.305, 97.307f9]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use 



from 7100 to 7150 kHz in ITU Region 2?



A.  CW and data



B.  Phone



C.  Data only



D.  CW only



     



N1E06 (D) [97.305, 97.307f9]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use on 



frequencies from 21.1 to 21.2 MHz?



A.  CW and data



B.  CW and phone



C.  Data only



D.  CW only



     



N1E07 (C) [97.305]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use on 



frequencies from 28.1 to 28.3 MHz?



A.  All authorized amateur emission privileges



B.  Data or phone



C.  CW, RTTY and data



D.  CW and phone



     



N1E08 (C) [97.305, 97.307f10]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use on 



frequencies from 28.3 to 28.5 MHz?



A.  All authorized amateur emission privileges



B.  CW and data



C.  CW and single-sideband phone



D.  Data and phone



     



N1E09 (D) [97.305]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use on 



the amateur 1.25-meter band in ITU Region 2?



A.  Only CW and phone



B.  Only CW and data



C.  Only data and phone



D.  All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on the band



     



N1E10 (D) [97.305]



What emission types are Novice control operators allowed to use on 



the amateur 23-centimeter band?



A.  Only data and phone



B.  Only CW and data



C.  Only CW and phone



D.  All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on the band



     



N1E11 (D) [97.305, 97.307f10]



On what HF frequencies may Novice control operators use single-



sideband (SSB) phone?



A.  3700 - 3750 kHz



B.  7100 - 7150 kHz



C.  21100 - 21200 kHz



D.  28300 - 28500 kHz



     



N1E12 (C) [97.305] 



On which of the following frequencies may Novice control operators 



in ITU Region 2 use FM phone?



A.  28.3 - 28.5 MHz



B.  144.0 - 148.0 MHz



C.  222 - 225 MHz



D.  1240 - 1270 MHz



      



N1E13 (B) [97.301e, 97.305]



On what frequencies in the 10-meter band may Novice control 



operators use RTTY?



A.  28.0 - 28.3 MHz



B.  28.1 - 28.3 MHz



C.  28.0 - 29.3 MHz



D.  29.1 - 29.3 MHz



     



N1E14 (B) [97.301e, 97.305]



On what frequencies in the 10-meter band may Novice control 



operators use data emissions?



A.  28.0 - 28.3 MHz



B.  28.1 - 28.3 MHz



C.  28.0 - 29.3 MHz



D.  29.1 - 29.3 MHz



      



N1F  Transmitter power on Novice sub-bands and digital 



communications [limited to concepts only]



      



N1F01 (D) [97.313a]



What amount of transmitter power must amateur stations use at all 



times?



A.  25 watts PEP output



B.  250 watts PEP output



C.  1500 watts PEP output



D.  The minimum legal power necessary to communicate



     



N1F02 (C) [97.313c1] 



What is the most transmitter power an amateur station may use on 



3710 kHz?



A.  5 watts PEP output



B.  25 watts PEP output



C.  200 watts PEP output



D.  1500 watts PEP output



     



N1F03 (C) [97.313c1] 



What is the most transmitter power an amateur station may use on 



7120 kHz?



A.  5 watts PEP output



B.  25 watts PEP output



C.  200 watts PEP output



D.  1500 watts PEP output



     



N1F04 (C) [97.313c1] 



What is the most transmitter power an amateur station may use on 



21.150 MHz?



A.  5 watts PEP output



B.  25 watts PEP output



C.  200 watts PEP output



D.  1500 watts PEP output



    



N1F05 (C) [97.313c2] 



What is the most transmitter power a Novice station may use on 



28.450 MHz?



A.  5 watts PEP output



B.  25 watts PEP output



C.  200 watts PEP output



D.  1500 watts PEP output



     



N1F06 (C) [97.313c2]



What is the most transmitter power a Novice station may use on the 



10-meter band?



A.  5 watts PEP output



B.  25 watts PEP output



C.  200 watts PEP output



D.  1500 watts PEP output



    



N1F07 (B) [97.313d]



What is the most transmitter power a Novice station may use on the 



1.25-meter band?



A.  5 watts PEP output



B.  25 watts PEP output



C.  200 watts PEP output



D.  1500 watts PEP output



     



N1F08 (A) [97.313e]



What is the most transmitter power a Novice station may use on the 



23-centimeter band?



A.  5 watts PEP output



B.  25 watts PEP output



C.  200 watts PEP output



D.  1500 watts PEP output



    



N1F09 (A) [97.313c]



On which band(s) may a Novice station use up to 200 watts PEP 



output power?



A.  80, 40, 15, and 10 meters



B.  80, 40, 20, and 10 meters



C.  1.25 meters



D.  23 centimeters



     



N1F10 (C) [97.313d]



On which band(s) must a Novice station use no more than 25 watts 



PEP output power?



A.  80, 40, 15, and 10 meters



B.  80, 40, 20, and 10 meters



C.  1.25 meters



D.  23 centimeters



    



N1F11 (D) [97.313e]



On which band(s) must a Novice station use no more than 5 watts 



PEP output power?



A.  80, 40, 15, and 10 meters



B.  80, 40, 20, and 10 meters



C.  1.25 meters



D.  23 centimeters



    



N1F12 (D) [97.313a] 



If you make contact with another station and your signal is 



extremely strong and perfectly readable, what adjustment should 



you make to your transmitter?



A.  Turn on your speech processor



B.  Reduce your SWR



C.  Don't make any changes, otherwise you may lose contact



D.  Turn down your power output to the minimum necessary



    



N1F13 (C) [97.3c2]  



What name does the FCC use for telemetry, telecommand or computer 



communications emissions?



A.  CW



B.  Image



C.  Data



D.  RTTY



    



N1F14 (D) [97.3c7] 



What name does the FCC use for narrow-band direct-printing 



telegraphy emissions?



A.  CW



B.  Image



C.  Data



D.  RTTY



     



N1G  Responsibility of licensee, control operator requirements



     



N1G01 (D) [97.3a12] 



What is the FCC's name for the person responsible for the 



transmissions from an amateur station?



A.  Auxiliary operator



B.  Operations coordinator



C.  Third-party operator



D.  Control operator



     



N1G02 (C) [97.103a]



Who is responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station?



A.  Only the control operator



B.  Only the station licensee



C.  Both the control operator and the station licensee



D.  The person who owns the station equipment



     



N1G03 (A) [97.103a]



If you transmit from another amateur's station, who is responsible 



for its proper operation?



A.  Both of you



B.  The other amateur (the station licensee)



C.  You, the control operator



D.  The station licensee, unless the station records show that you 



were the control operator at the time



     



N1G04 (D) [97.103a]



What is your responsibility as a station licensee?



A.  You must allow another amateur to operate your station upon 



request



B.  You must be present whenever the station is operated



C.  You must notify the FCC if another amateur acts as the control 



operator



D.  You are responsible for the proper operation of the station in 



accordance with the FCC rules



     



N1G05 (C) [97.103b]



Who may be the control operator of an amateur station?



A.  Any person over 21 years of age



B.  Any person over 21 years of age with a General class license 



or higher



C.  Any licensed amateur chosen by the station licensee



D.  Any licensed amateur with a Technician class license or higher



   



N1G06 (B) [97.103b]



If another amateur transmits from your station, which of these is 



NOT true?



A.  You must first give permission for the other amateur to use 



your station



B.  You must keep the call sign of the other amateur, together 



with the time and date of transmissions, in your station log



C.  The FCC will think that you are the station's control operator 



unless your station records show that you were not



D.  Both of you are equally responsible for the proper operation 



of the station



     



N1G07 (A) [97.105b]



If you let another amateur with a higher class license than yours 



control your station, what operating privileges are allowed?



A.  Any privileges allowed by the higher license, as long as 



proper identification procedures are followed



B.  Only the privileges allowed by your license



C.  All the emission privileges of the higher license, but only 



the frequency privileges of your license



D.  All the frequency privileges of the higher license, but only 



the emission privileges of your license



     



N1G08 (B) [97.105b]



If you are the control operator at the station of another amateur 



who has a higher class license than yours, what operating 



privileges are you allowed?



A.  Any privileges allowed by the higher license



B.  Only the privileges allowed by your license



C.  All the emission privileges of the higher license, but only 



the frequency privileges of your license



D.  All the frequency privileges of the higher license, but only 



the emission privileges of your license



     



N1G09 (C) [97.7]



When must an amateur station have a control operator?



A.  Only when training another amateur



B.  Whenever the station receiver is operated



C.  Whenever the station is transmitting



D.  A control operator is not needed



    



N1G10 (A) [97.109b]



When a Novice station is transmitting, where must its control 



operator be?



A.  At the station's control point



B.  Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter



C.  At the station's entrance, to control entry to the room



D.  Anywhere within 50 km of the station location



    



N1G11 (B) [97.109b]



Why can't unlicensed persons in your family transmit using your 



amateur station if they are alone with your equipment?



A.  They must not use your equipment without your permission



B.  They must be licensed before they are allowed to be control 



operators



C.  They must first know how to use the right abbreviations and Q 



signals



D.  They must first know the right frequencies and emissions for 



transmitting



     



N1H  Station identification, points of communication and 



operation, and business communications



     



N1H01 (C) [97.119a]



How often must an amateur station be identified?



A.  At the beginning of a contact and at least every ten minutes 



after that



B.  At least once during each transmission



C.  At least every ten minutes during and at the end of a contact



D.  At the beginning and end of each transmission



     



N1H02 (B) [97.119a]



What do you transmit to identify your amateur station?



A.  Your "handle"



B.  Your call sign



C.  Your first name and your location



D.  Your full name



     



N1H03 (A) [97.119a]



What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations 



begin communications?



A.  No identification is required



B.  One of the stations must give both stations' call signs



C.  Each station must transmit its own call sign



D.  Both stations must transmit both call signs



    



N1H04 (C) [97.119a]



What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations 



end communications?



A.  No identification is required



B.  One of the stations must transmit both stations' call signs



C.  Each station must transmit its own call sign



D.  Both stations must transmit both call signs



     



N1H05 (B) [97.115c]



Besides normal identification, what else must a US station do when 



sending third-party communications internationally?



A.  The US station must transmit its own call sign at the 



beginning of each communication, and at least every ten minutes 



after that



B.  The US station must transmit both call signs at the end of 



each communication



C.  The US station must transmit its own call sign at the 



beginning of each communication, and at least every five minutes 



after that



D.  Each station must transmit its own call sign at the end of 



each transmission, and at least every five minutes after that



     



N1H06 (B) [97.119a] 



What is the longest period of time an amateur station can operate 



without transmitting its call sign?



A.  5 minutes



B.  10 minutes



C.  15 minutes



D.  30 minutes



    



N1H07 (C) [97.111]



With which non-amateur stations is a US amateur station allowed to 



communicate?



A.  No non-amateur stations



B.  All non-amateur stations



C.  Only those authorized by the FCC



D.  Only those who use international Morse code



    



N1H08 (B) [97.113a3]  



Under what conditions are amateur stations allowed to communicate 



with stations operating in other radio services?



A.  Never; amateur stations are only permitted to communicate with 



other amateur stations



B.  When authorized by the FCC or in an emergency



C.  When communicating with stations in the Citizens Radio Service



D.  When a commercial broadcast station is using Amateur Radio 



frequencies for news gathering during a natural disaster



    



N1H09 (D) [97.5a]



When may you operate your amateur station somewhere in the US 



besides the address listed on your license?



A.  Only during times of emergency



B.  Only after giving proper notice to the FCC



C.  During an emergency or an FCC-approved emergency practice



D.  Whenever you want to



    



N1H10 (B) [97.113a2]  



If you work for a taxi service, under what conditions might you 



use your amateur station to tell taxi drivers where to pick up 



customers?



A.  Only when you first obtain the proper FCC commercial 



endorsement for your license



B.  Never, because this is clearly a business communication



C.  Only between the hours of 6:00 PM and 6:00 AM local time



D.  Only if the taxi driver is also a licensed amateur radio 



operator



    



N1H11 (A) [97.113a]  



Do the FCC Rules allow you to buy and sell amateur station 



equipment using amateur communications?



A.  Yes, provided you do not do so on a regular basis



B.  No, because this is clearly a business communication



C.  Yes, provided you do this only once per calendar year



D.  No, unless you collect all taxes and report them to the IRS



     



N1H12 (C) [97.11]  



When may you operate your amateur station aboard a commercial 



aircraft?



A.  At any time



B.  Only while the aircraft is not in flight



C.  Only with the pilot's specific permission and not while the 



aircraft is operating under Instrument Flight Rules



D.  Only if you have written permission from the commercial 



airline company and not during takeoff and landing



    



N1I  International and space communications, authorized and 



prohibited transmissions



     



N1I01 (D) [97.111a1]



When are you allowed to communicate with an amateur in a foreign 



country?



A.  Only when the foreign amateur uses English



B.  Only when you have permission from the FCC



C.  Only when a third-party agreement exists between the US and 



the foreign country



D.  At any time, unless it is not allowed by either government



     



N1I02 (C) [97.3a38]



What is an amateur space station?



A.  An amateur station operated on an unused frequency



B.  An amateur station awaiting its new call letters from the FCC



C.  An amateur station located more than 50 kilometers above the 



Earth's surface



D.  An amateur station that communicates with space shuttles



     



N1I03 (B) [97.207a]



Who may be the licensee of an amateur space station?



A.  An amateur holding an Amateur Extra class operator license



B.  Any licensed amateur operator



C.  Anyone designated by the commander of the spacecraft



D.  No one unless specifically authorized by the government



     



N1I04 (D) [97.113c,d]



When may someone be paid to transmit messages from an amateur 



station?



A.  Only if he or she works for a public service agency such as 



the Red Cross



B.  Under no circumstances



C.  Only if he or she reports all such payments to the IRS



D.  Only if the operator is a classroom teacher or works for a 



club station and special requirements are met



      



N1I05 (A) [97.113b]



When is an amateur allowed to broadcast information to the general 



public?



A.  Never



B.  Only when the operator is being paid



C.  Only when broadcasts last less than 1 hour



D.  Only when broadcasts last longer than 15 minutes



     



N1I06 (A) [97.113a4, 97.113e] 



When is an amateur station permitted to transmit music?



A.  Never, except incidental music during authorized rebroadcasts 



of space shuttle communications



B.  Only if the transmitted music produces no spurious emissions



C.  Only if it is used to jam an illegal transmission



D.  Only if it is above 1280 MHz, and the music is a live 



performance



     



N1I07 (C) [97.113a4] 



When is the use of codes or ciphers allowed to hide the meaning of 



an amateur message?



A.  Only during contests



B.  Only during nationally declared emergencies



C.  Never, except when special requirements are met



D.  Only on frequencies above 1280 MHz



     



N1I08 (A) [97.3a44]



What is the definition of third-party communications?



A.  A message sent between two amateur stations for someone else



B.  Public service communications for a political party



C.  Any messages sent by amateur stations



D.  A three-minute transmission to another amateur



     



N1I09 (B) [97.3a44]



What is a "third party" in amateur communications?



A.  An amateur station that breaks in to talk



B.  A person who is sent a message by amateur communications other 



than a control operator who handles the message



C.  A shortwave listener who monitors amateur communications



D.  An unlicensed control operator



     



N1I10 (A) [97.115a2]



If you are allowing a non-amateur friend to use your station to 



talk to someone in the US, and a foreign station breaks in to talk 



to your friend, what should you do?



A.  Have your friend wait until you find out if the US has a 



third-party agreement with the foreign station's government



B.  Stop all discussions and quickly sign off



C.  Since you can talk to any foreign amateurs, your friend may 



keep talking as long as you are the control operator



D.  Report the incident to the foreign amateur's government



     



N1I11 (D) [97.115a2]



When are you allowed to transmit a message to a station in a 



foreign country for a third party?



A.  Anytime



B.  Never



C.  Anytime, unless there is a third-party agreement between the 



US and the foreign government



D.  If there is a third-party agreement with the US government, or 



if the third party is eligible to be the control operator



     



N1I12 (D) [97.405a] 



If you hear a voice distress signal on a frequency outside of your 



license privileges, what are you allowed to do to help the station 



in distress?



A.  You are NOT allowed to help because the frequency of the 



signal is outside your privileges



B.  You are allowed to help only if you keep your signals within 



the nearest frequency band of your privileges



C.  You are allowed to help on a frequency outside your privileges 



only if you use international Morse code



D.  You are allowed to help on a frequency outside your privileges 



in any way possible



     



N1I13 (C) [97.403] 



When may you use your amateur station to transmit an "SOS" or 



"MAYDAY"?



A.  Never



B.  Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 minutes after the hour)



C.  In a life- or property-threatening emergency



D.  When the National Weather Service has announced a severe 



weather watch



    



N1I14 (B) [97.405a] 



When may you send a distress signal on any frequency?



A.  Never



B.  In a life- or property-threatening emergency



C.  Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 minutes after the hour)



D.  When the National Weather Service has announced a severe 



weather watch



     



N1J  False signals or unidentified communications and malicious 



interference



     



N1J01 (A) [97.113a4]



When may false or deceptive amateur signals or communications be 



transmitted?



A.  Never



B.  When operating a beacon transmitter in a "fox hunt" exercise



C.  When playing a harmless "practical joke"



D.  When you need to hide the meaning of a message for secrecy



     



N1J02 (C) [97.113a4]



If an amateur pretends there is an emergency and transmits the 



word "MAYDAY," what is this called?



A.  A traditional greeting in May



B.  An emergency test transmission



C.  False or deceptive signals



D.  Nothing special; "MAYDAY" has no meaning in an emergency



     



N1J03 (B) [97.3a22]



What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications?



A.  Interrupted CW



B.  Harmful interference



C.  Transponder signals



D.  Unidentified transmissions



     



N1J04 (A) [97.303h]  



If you are operating FM phone on the 23-cm band and learn that you 



are interfering with a radiolocation station outside the US, what 



must you do?



A.  Stop operating or take steps to eliminate this harmful 



interference



B.  Nothing, because this band is allocated exclusively to the 



amateur service



C.  Establish contact with the radiolocation station and ask them 



to change frequency



D.  Change to CW mode, because this would not likely cause 



interference



    



N1J05 (B) [97.3a22]



Why is transmitting on a police frequency as a "joke" called 



harmful interference that deserves a large penalty?



A.  It annoys everyone who listens



B.  It blocks police calls that might be an emergency and 



interrupts police communications



C.  It is in bad taste to communicate with non-amateurs, even as a 



joke



D.  It is poor amateur practice to transmit outside the amateur 



bands



    



N1J06 (C) [97.101d]



When may you deliberately interfere with another station's 



communications?



A.  Only if the station is operating illegally



B.  Only if the station begins transmitting on a frequency you are 



using



C.  Never



D.  You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because it 



can't be helped during crowded band conditions



    



N1J07 (C) [97.119a]



When may an amateur transmit unidentified communications?



A.  Only for brief tests not meant as messages



B.  Only if it does not interfere with others



C.  Never, except transmissions from a space station or to control 



a model craft



D.  Only for two-way or third-party communications



     



N1J08 (A) [97.119a]



What is an amateur communication called that does not have the 



required station identification?



A.  Unidentified communications or signals



B.  Reluctance modulation



C.  Test emission



D.  Tactical communication



    



N1J09 (D) [97.119a]



If you answer someone on the air and then complete your 



communication without giving your call sign, what type of 



communication have you just conducted?



A.  Test transmission



B.  Tactical signal



C.  Packet communication



D.  Unidentified communication



     



N1J10 (C) [97.119a]  



If an amateur transmits to test access to a repeater without 



giving any station identification, what type of communication is 



this called?



A.  A test emission; no identification is required



B.  An illegal unmodulated transmission



C.  An illegal unidentified transmission



D.  A non-communication; no voice is transmitted



    



N1J11 (B) [97.3a22]  



If an amateur repeatedly transmits on a frequency already occupied 



by a group of amateurs in a net operation, what type of 



interference is this called?



A.  Break-in interference



B.  Harmful or malicious interference



C.  Incidental interference



D.  Intermittent interference







    



SUBELEMENT N2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES 



[2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]



    



N2A  Preparing to transmit; choosing a frequency for tune-up, 



operating or emergencies; Morse code; RST signal reports; Q 



signals; voice communications and phonetics



     



N2A01 (A)



What should you do before you transmit on any frequency?



A.  Listen to make sure others are not using the frequency



B.  Listen to make sure that someone will be able to hear you



C.  Check your antenna for resonance at the selected frequency



D.  Make sure the SWR on your antenna feed line is high enough



    



N2A02 (C) 



What is one way to shorten transmitter tune-up time on the air to 



reduce interference?



A.  Use a random wire antenna



B.  Tune up on 40 meters, then switch to the desired band



C.  Tune the transmitter into a dummy load



D.  Use twin lead instead of coax-cable feed lines



     



N2A03 (D)



If you are in contact with another station and you hear an 



emergency call for help on your frequency, what should you do?



A.  Tell the calling station that the frequency is in use



B.  Direct the calling station to the nearest emergency net 



frequency



C.  Call your local Civil Preparedness Office and inform them of 



the emergency



D.  Stop your QSO immediately and take the emergency call



    



N2A04 (B) 



What is the correct way to call CQ when using Morse code?



A.  Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE," followed 



by your call sign sent once



B.  Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE," followed 



by your call sign sent three times



C.  Send the letters "CQ" ten times, followed by "DE," followed by 



your call sign sent twice



D.  Send the letters "CQ" over and over until a station answers



     



N2A05 (B)



How should you answer a Morse code CQ call?



A.  Send your call sign four times



B.  Send the other station's call sign twice, followed by "DE," 



followed by your call sign twice



C.  Send the other station's call sign once, followed by "DE," 



followed by your call sign four times



D.  Send your call sign followed by your name, station location 



and a signal report



     



N2A06 (C)



At what speed should a Morse code CQ call be transmitted?



A.  Only speeds below five WPM



B.  The highest speed your keyer will operate



C.  Any speed at which you can reliably receive



D.  The highest speed at which you can control the keyer



     



N2A07 (D)



What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"?



A.  "Call on the quarter hour"



B.  "New antenna is being tested" (no station should answer)



C.  "Only the called station should transmit"



D.  "Calling any station"



    



N2A08 (A) 



What is the meaning of the procedural signal "DE"?



A.  "From" or "this is," as in "W0AIH DE KA9FOX"



B.  "Directional Emissions" from your antenna



C.  "Received all correctly"



D.  "Calling any station"



     



N2A09 (A)



What is the meaning of the procedural signal "K"?



A.  "Any station transmit"



B.  "All received correctly"



C.  "End of message"



D.  "Called station only transmit"



    



N2A10 (B)



What is meant by the term "DX"?



A.  Best regards



B.  Distant station



C.  Calling any station



D.  Go ahead



    



N2A11 (B)



What is the meaning of the term "73"?



A.  Long distance



B.  Best regards



C.  Love and kisses



D.  Go ahead



    



N2A12 (C)



What are RST signal reports?



A.  A short way to describe ionospheric conditions



B.  A short way to describe transmitter power



C.  A short way to describe signal reception



D.  A short way to describe sunspot activity



    



N2A13 (D)



What does RST mean in a signal report?



A.  Recovery, signal strength, tempo



B.  Recovery, signal speed, tone



C.  Readability, signal speed, tempo



D.  Readability, signal strength, tone



    



N2A14 (B)



What is one meaning of the Q signal "QRS"?



A.  "Interference from static"



B.  "Send more slowly"



C.  "Send RST report"



D.  "Radio station location is"



    



N2A15 (D)



What is one meaning of the Q signal "QTH"?



A.  "Time here is"



B.  "My name is"



C.  "Stop sending"



D.  "My location is"



    



N2A16 (C)



What is a QSL card in the amateur service?



A.  A letter or postcard from an amateur pen pal



B.  A Notice of Violation from the FCC



C.  A written acknowledgment of communications between two 



amateurs



D.  A postcard reminding you when your license will expire



    



N2A17 (C)



What is the correct way to call CQ when using voice?



A.  Say "CQ" once, followed by "this is," followed by your call 



sign spoken three times



B.  Say "CQ" at least five times, followed by "this is," followed 



by your call sign spoken once



C.  Say "CQ" three times, followed by "this is," followed by your 



call sign spoken three times



D.  Say "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is," followed 



by your call sign spoken once



      



N2A18 (D)



How should you answer a voice CQ call?



A.  Say the other station's call sign at least ten times, followed 



by "this is," then your call sign at least twice



B.  Say the other station's call sign at least five times 



phonetically, followed by "this is," then your call sign at least 



once



C.  Say the other station's call sign at least three times, 



followed by "this is," then your call sign at least five times 



phonetically



D.  Say the other station's call sign once, followed by "this is," 



then your call sign given phonetically



     



N2A19 (C)



What is the proper Q signal to use to see if a frequency is in use 



before transmitting on CW?



A.  QRV?



B.  QRU?



C.  QRL?



D.  QRZ?



     



N2A20 (A)



What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSY"?



A.  "Change frequency"



B.  "Send more slowly"



C.  "Send faster"



D.  "Use more power"



     



N2A21 (B)



What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSO"?



A.  A contact is confirmed



B.  A conversation is in progress



C.  I can communicate with



D.  A conversation is desired



    



N2A22 (B)



What is the proper Q signal to use to ask if someone is calling 



you on CW?



A.  QSL?



B.  QRZ?



C.  QRL?



D.  QRT?



    



N2A23 (A)



To make your call sign better understood when using voice 



transmissions, what should you do?



A.  Use Standard International Phonetics for each letter of your 



call



B.  Use any words that start with the same letters as your call 



sign for each letter of your call



C.  Talk louder



D.  Turn up your microphone gain



    



N2B  Radio teleprinting; packet; repeater operating procedures; 



special operations



     



N2B01 (B) 



What is the correct way to call CQ when using RTTY?



A.  Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE," followed 



by your call sign sent once



B.  Send the letters "CQ" three to six times, followed by "DE," 



followed by your call sign sent three times



C.  Send the letters "CQ" ten times, followed by the procedural 



signal "DE," followed by your call sign sent twice



D.  Send the letters "CQ" over and over



    



N2B02 (B)



What speed should you use when answering a CQ call using RTTY?



A.  Half the speed of the received signal



B.  The same speed as the received signal



C.  Twice the speed of the received signal



D.  Any speed, since RTTY systems adjust to any signal speed



    



N2B03 (B)  



What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?



A.  "Returning to you", meaning "your turn to transmit"



B.  Radioteletype



C.  A general call to all digital stations



D.  Morse code practice over the air



    



N2B04 (C)



What does "connected" mean in a packet-radio link?



A.  A telephone link is working between two stations



B.  A message has reached an amateur station for local delivery



C.  A transmitting station is sending data to only one receiving 



station; it replies that the data is being received correctly



D.  A transmitting and receiving station are using a digipeater, 



so no other contacts can take place until they are finished



    



N2B05 (D) 



What does "monitoring" mean on a packet-radio frequency?



A.  The FCC is copying all messages



B.  A member of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Compliance and 



Information Bureau is copying all messages



C.  A receiving station is displaying all messages sent to it, and 



replying that the messages are being received correctly



D.  A receiving station is displaying all messages on the 



frequency, and is not replying to any messages



    



N2B06 (A) 



What is a digipeater?



A.  A packet-radio station that retransmits only data that is 



marked to be retransmitted



B.  A packet-radio station that retransmits any data that it 



receives



C.  A repeater that changes audio signals to digital data



D.  A repeater built using only digital electronics parts



    



N2B07 (B)



What does "network" mean in packet radio?



A.  A way of connecting terminal-node controllers by telephone so 



data can be sent over long distances



B.  A way of connecting packet-radio stations so data can be sent 



over long distances



C.  The wiring connections on a terminal-node controller board



D.  The programming in a terminal-node controller that rejects 



other callers if a station is already connected



    



N2B08 (C)



What is a good way to make contact on a repeater?



A.  Say the call sign of the station you want to contact three 



times



B.  Say the other operator's name, then your call sign three times



C.  Say the call sign of the station you want to contact, then 



your call sign



D.  Say, "Breaker, breaker," then your call sign



    



N2B09 (A)



When using a repeater to communicate, which of the following do 



you need to know about the repeater?



A.  Its input frequency and offset



B.  Its call sign



C.  Its power level



D.  Whether or not it has an autopatch



      



N2B10 (A)



What does it mean to say that a repeater has an input and an 



output frequency?



A.  The repeater receives on one frequency and transmits on 



another



B.  The repeater offers a choice of operating frequency, in case 



one is busy



C.  One frequency is used to control the repeater and another is 



used to retransmit received signals



D.  The repeater must receive an access code on one frequency 



before retransmitting received signals



     



N2B11 (C)



What is an autopatch?



A.  Something that automatically selects the strongest signal to 



be repeated



B.  A device that connects a mobile station to the next repeater 



if it moves out of range of the first



C.  A device that allows repeater users to make telephone calls 



from their stations



D.  A device that locks other stations out of a repeater when 



there is an important conversation in progress



     



N2B12 (D)



What is the purpose of a repeater time-out timer?



A.  It lets a repeater have a rest period after heavy use



B.  It logs repeater transmit time to predict when a repeater will 



fail



C.  It tells how long someone has been using a repeater



D.  It limits the amount of time someone can transmit on a 



repeater



    



N2B13 (B)



What is a CTCSS (or PL) tone?



A.  A special signal used for telecommand control of model craft



B.  A sub-audible tone, added to a carrier, which may cause a 



receiver to accept a signal



C.  A tone used by repeaters to mark the end of a transmission



D.  A special signal used for telemetry between amateur space 



stations and Earth stations



     



N2B14 (A)



What is simplex operation?



A.  Transmitting and receiving on the same frequency



B.  Transmitting and receiving over a wide area



C.  Transmitting on one frequency and receiving on another



D.  Transmitting one-way communications



    



N2B15 (B)



When should you use simplex operation instead of a repeater?



A.  When the most reliable communications are needed



B.  When a contact is possible without using a repeater



C.  When an emergency telephone call is needed



D.  When you are traveling and need some local information



    



SUBELEMENT N3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION 



[1 Exam Question -- 1 Group]  



     



N3A  Line of sight, ground wave, HF propagation characteristics; 



sunspots and the sunspot cycle; and reflection of VHF/UHF signals



     



N3A01 (A) 



When a signal travels in a straight line from one antenna to 



another, what is this called?



A.  Line-of-sight propagation



B.  Straight line propagation



C.  Knife-edge diffraction



D.  Tunnel ducting



     



N3A02 (B)



How do VHF and UHF radio waves usually travel from a transmitting 



antenna to a receiving antenna?



A.  They bend through the ionosphere



B.  They go in a straight line



C.  They wander in any direction



D.  They move in a circle going either east or west from the 



transmitter



     



N3A03 (D)



When a signal travels along the surface of the Earth, what is this 



called?



A.  Sky-wave propagation



B.  Knife-edge diffraction



C.  E-region propagation



D.  Ground-wave propagation



     



N3A04 (B)



How does the range of sky-wave propagation compare to ground-wave 



propagation?



A.  It is much shorter



B.  It is much longer



C.  It is about the same



D.  It depends on the weather



     



N3A05 (A)



When a signal is returned to Earth by the ionosphere, what is this 



called?



A.  Sky-wave propagation



B.  Earth-Moon-Earth propagation



C.  Ground-wave propagation



D.  Tropospheric propagation



     



N3A06 (C)



What is the usual cause of sky-wave propagation?



A.  Signals are reflected by a mountain



B.  Signals are reflected by the Moon



C.  Signals are bent back to Earth by the ionosphere



D.  Signals are retransmitted by a repeater



      



N3A07 (C)



What is a skip zone?



A.  An area covered by ground-wave propagation



B.  An area covered by sky-wave propagation



C.  An area that is too far away for ground-wave propagation, but 



too close for sky-wave propagation



D.  An area that is too far away for ground-wave or sky-wave 



propagation



     



N3A08 (A)



What are the regions of ionized gases high above the Earth called?



A.  The ionosphere



B.  The troposphere



C.  The gas region



D.  The ion zone



     



N3A09 (D) 



What is the name of the area of the atmosphere that makes long-



distance radio communications possible by bending radio waves?



A.  Troposphere



B.  Stratosphere



C.  Magnetosphere



D.  Ionosphere



    



N3A10 (A) 



What causes the ionosphere to form?



A.  Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere



B.  Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere



C.  Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere



D.  Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere



      



N3A11 (C)  



What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in 



the outer atmosphere?



A.  Thermal



B.  Non-ionized particle



C.  Ultraviolet



D.  Microwave



    



N3A12 (B) 



Which ionospheric region is closest to the Earth?



A.  The A region



B.  The D region



C.  The E region



D.  The F region



    



N3A13 (D) 



Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long-



distance sky-wave radio communications?



A.  D region



B.  E region



C.  F1 region



D.  F2 region



    



N3A14 (B) 



Which of the ionospheric regions may split into two regions only 



during the daytime?



A.  Troposphere



B.  F



C.  Electrostatic



D.  D 



    



N3A15 (C)  



Which two daytime ionospheric regions combine into one region at 



night?



A.  E and F1



B.  D and E



C.  F1 and F2



D.  E1 and E2



    



N3A16 (A) 



How does the number of sunspots relate to the amount of ionization 



in the ionosphere?



A.  The more sunspots there are, the greater the ionization



B.  The more sunspots there are, the less the ionization



C.  Unless there are sunspots, the ionization is zero



D.  Sunspots do not affect the ionosphere



    



N3A17 (C)



How long is an average sunspot cycle?



A.  2 years



B.  5 years



C.  11 years



D.  17 years



    



N3A18 (C)



What can happen to VHF or UHF signals going towards a metal-framed 



building?



A.  They will go around the building



B.  They can be bent by the ionosphere



C.  They can be easily reflected by the building



D.  They are sometimes scattered in the ecosphere



    



SUBELEMENT N4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES 



[4 Exam QUESTIONS -- 4 Groups]



    



N4A  Preventing unauthorized use; lightning protection and station 



grounding



     



N4A01 (B) 



How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your 



amateur station at home?



A.  Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line



B.  Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line



C.  Put a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the station



D.  Put fuses in the main power line



     



N4A02 (A)



How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile 



amateur station in your car?



A.  Disconnect the microphone when you are not using it



B.  Put a "do not touch" sign on the radio



C.  Turn the radio off when you are not using it



D.  Tune the radio to an unused frequency when you are done using 



it



     



N4A03 (A) 



Why would you use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power 



line of your station?



A.  To keep unauthorized persons from using your station



B.  For safety, in case the main fuses fail



C.  To keep the power company from turning off your electricity 



during an emergency



D.  For safety, to turn off the station in the event of an 



emergency



     



N4A04 (C)



How can an antenna system best be protected from lightning damage?



A.  Install a balun at the antenna feed point



B.  Install an RF choke in the antenna feed line



C.  Ground all antennas when they are not in use



D.  Install a fuse in the antenna feed line



     



N4A05 (D)



How can amateur station equipment best be protected from lightning 



damage?



A.  Use heavy insulation on the wiring



B.  Never turn off the equipment



C.  Disconnect the ground system from all radios



D.  Disconnect all equipment from the power lines and antenna 



cables



     



N4A06 (B)



For best protection from electrical shock, what should be grounded 



in an amateur station?



A.  The power supply primary



B.  All station equipment



C.  The antenna feed line



D.  The AC power mains



    



N4A07 (D)



Why should you ground all antenna and rotator cables when your 



amateur station is not in use?



A.  To lock the antenna system in one position



B.  To avoid radio frequency interference



C.  To save electricity



D.  To protect the station and building from lightning damage



    



N4A08 (A)  



What document describes safe grounding practices for electrical 



wiring, antennas and other electrical equipment, such as would be 



used in an amateur station?



A.  The National Electrical Code



B.  FCC Rules, Part 97



C.  The National Construction Trades Association Manual



D.  The National Association of Broadcaster's Safety Manual



     



N4A09 (C)



Where should you connect the chassis of each piece of your station 



equipment to best protect against electrical shock?



A.  To insulated shock mounts



B.  To the antenna



C.  To a good ground connection



D.  To a circuit breaker



    



N4A10 (B)



Which of these materials is best for a ground rod driven into the 



earth?



A.  Hard plastic



B.  Copper or copper-clad steel



C.  Iron or steel



D.  Fiberglass



    



N4A11 (C)



If you ground your station equipment to a ground rod driven into 



the earth, what is the shortest length the rod should be?



A.  4 feet



B.  6 feet



C.  8 feet



D.  10 feet



    



N4B   Safety interlocks, antenna installation safety procedures



     



N4B01 (D) 



Why would there be an interlock switch in a high-voltage power 



supply to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened?



A.  To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an 



open cabinet



B.  To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open 



cabinet



C.  To turn the power supply off when it is not being used



D.  To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by 



dangerous high voltages



      



N4B02 (A)  



What is the name used for a safety switch inside a power-supply 



cabinet that turns off power when the cabinet door is opened?



A.  An interlock switch



B.  A circuit breaker



C.  A deadman switch



D.  The main switch



     



N4B03 (D) 



What kind of safety equipment should you wear if you are working 



on an antenna tower?



A.  A grounding chain and rubber-sole shoes



B.  A reflective vest of approved color



C.  Electrical-insulating safety gloves and a static discharge 



line



D.  A carefully inspected safety belt, hard hat and safety glasses



    



N4B04 (D)



Why should you wear a safety belt if you are working on an antenna 



tower?



A.  To safely hold your tools so they don't fall and injure 



someone on the ground



B.  To keep the tower from becoming unbalanced while you are 



working



C.  To safely bring any tools you might use up and down the tower



D.  To prevent you from accidentally falling



     



N4B05 (C) 



Why should you wear a hard hat and safety glasses if you are on 



the ground helping someone work on an antenna tower?



A.  So you won't be hurt if the tower should accidentally fall



B.  To keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing



C.  To protect your head from something dropped from the tower



D.  So someone passing by will know that work is being done on the 



tower and will stay away



     



N4B06 (D)  



What is an advantage to using copper-clad steel wire for an HF 



wire antenna?



A.  It will stretch rather than break under strain



B.  It is very flexible and easy to handle



C.  It will not rust with age



D.  It is much stronger than the same gauge drawn-copper wire



     



N4B07 (A)  



What is one disadvantage to using small gauge wire when 



constructing an HF antenna?



A.  It is not strong, and will stretch or break easily



B.  It is difficult to see from the ground



C.  It can only be fed with coaxial cable



D.  It can only be fed with parallel-conductor feed line



     



N4B08 (D)  



What safety factors must you consider when using a bow and arrow 



or slingshot and weight to shoot an antenna-support line over a 



tree?



A.  You must ensure that the line is strong enough to withstand 



the shock of shooting the weight



B.  You must ensure that the arrow or weight has a safe flight 



path if the line breaks



C.  You must ensure that the bow and arrow or slingshot is in good 



working condition



D.  All of these choices are correct



     



N4B09 (B)  



Which of the following is the best way to install your antenna in 



relation to overhead electric power lines?



A.  Always be sure your antenna wire is higher than the power 



line, and crosses it at a 90-degree angle



B.  Always be sure your antenna and feed line are well clear of 



any power lines



C.  Always be sure your antenna is lower than the power line, and 



crosses it at a small angle



D.  Only use vertical antennas within 100 feet of a power line



     



N4B10 (A)  



What circuit should be controlled by a safety interlock switch in 



an amateur transceiver or power amplifier?



A.  The power supply



B.  The IF amplifier



C.  The audio amplifier



D.  The cathode bypass circuit



    



N4B11 (B)  



What electrical rating should a safety interlock switch have?



A.  Sufficient capacitance to prevent any leakage current



B.  Sufficient voltage rating and current capacity for the 



protected circuit



C.  Sufficient inductance to ensure a strong magnetic field to 



hold the cover when power is on



D.  Sufficient resistance to ensure proper current limiting



    



N4B12 (D)  



In which of the following devices should there be a safety 



interlock switch to protect anyone from dangerous voltages?



A.  A vacuum-tube power amplifier



B.  A high-voltage power supply



C.  A station-monitor oscilloscope



D.  All of these choices are correct



    



N4B13 (C)  



What is one disadvantage of using inexpensive polypropylene rope 



to support your HF dipole antenna?



A.  Birds like to pick at the brightly colored rope as a source of 



nest-building material



B.  The texture grabs rough tree limbs and does not slide easily



C.  It disintegrates rapidly when exposed to sunlight and weather



D.  It is a good conductor of electricity



     



N4C  SWR meaning and measurements



     



N4C01 (B)



What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean?



A.  An antenna for another frequency band is probably connected



B.  The best impedance match has been attained



C.  No power is going to the antenna



D.  The SWR meter is broken



     



N4C02 (C)



What does an SWR reading of less than 1.5:1 mean?



A.  An impedance match that is too low



B.  An impedance mismatch; something may be wrong with the antenna 



system



C.  A fairly good impedance match



D.  An antenna gain of 1.5



    



N4C03 (D) 



What does an SWR reading of 4:1 mean?



A.  An impedance match that is too low



B.  An impedance match that is good, but not the best



C.  An antenna gain of 4



D.  An impedance mismatch; something may be wrong with the antenna 



system



    



N4C04 (A)



What kind of SWR reading may mean poor electrical contact between 



parts of an antenna system?



A.  A jumpy reading



B.  A very low reading



C.  No reading at all



D.  A negative reading



    



N4C05 (A)



What does a very high SWR reading mean?



A.  The antenna is the wrong length, or there may be an open or 



shorted connection somewhere in the feed line



B.  The signals coming from the antenna are unusually strong, 



which means very good radio conditions



C.  The transmitter is putting out more power than normal, showing 



that it is about to go bad



D.  There is a large amount of solar radiation, which means very 



poor radio conditions



    



N4C06 (B)



If an SWR reading at the low frequency end of an amateur band is 



2.5:1, increasing to 5:1 at the high frequency end of the same 



band, what does this tell you about your 1/2-wavelength dipole 



antenna?



A.  The antenna is broadbanded



B.  The antenna is too long for operation on the band



C.  The antenna is too short for operation on the band



D.  The antenna is just right for operation on the band



    



N4C07 (C)



If an SWR reading at the low frequency end of an amateur band is 



5:1, decreasing to 2.5:1 at the high frequency end of the same 



band, what does this tell you about your 1/2-wavelength dipole 



antenna?



A.  The antenna is broadbanded



B.  The antenna is too long for operation on the band



C.  The antenna is too short for operation on the band



D.  The antenna is just right for operation on the band



    



N4C08 (A)



If you use a 3-30 MHz RF-power meter at UHF frequencies, how 



accurate will its readings be?



A.  They may not be accurate at all



B.  They will be accurate enough to get by



C.  They will be accurate but the readings must be divided by two



D.  They will be accurate but the readings must be multiplied by 



two



    



N4C09 (C)



What instrument is used to measure standing wave ratio?



A.  An ohmmeter



B.  An ammeter



C.  An SWR meter



D.  A current bridge



    



N4C10 (D)



What instrument is used to measure the relative impedance match 



between an antenna and its feed line?



A.  An ammeter



B.  An ohmmeter



C.  A voltmeter



D.  An SWR meter



    



N4C11 (A)



Where would you connect an SWR meter to measure standing wave 



ratio?



A.  Between the feed line and the antenna



B.  Between the transmitter and the power supply



C.  Between the transmitter and the receiver



D.  Between the transmitter and the ground



    



N4D  RFI and its complications, resolution and responsibility



     



N4D01 (C) 



What is meant by receiver overload?



A.  Too much voltage from the power supply



B.  Too much current from the power supply



C.  Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby source



D.  Interference caused by turning the volume up too high



    



N4D02 (A)



What is meant by harmonic radiation?



A.  Unwanted signals at frequencies that are multiples of the 



fundamental (chosen) frequency



B.  Unwanted signals that are combined with a 60-Hz hum



C.  Unwanted signals caused by sympathetic vibrations from a 



nearby transmitter



D.  Signals that cause skip propagation to occur



     



N4D03 (A)



Why is harmonic radiation from an amateur station not wanted?



A.  It may cause interference to other stations and may result in 



out-of-band signals



B.  It uses large amounts of electric power



C.  It may cause sympathetic vibrations in nearby transmitters



D.  It may cause auroras in the air



     



N4D04 (A)



What type of interference may come from a multi-band antenna 



connected to a poorly tuned transmitter?



A.  Harmonic radiation



B.  Auroral distortion



C.  Parasitic excitation



D.  Intermodulation



    



N4D05 (C)



What is the main purpose of shielding in a transmitter?



A.  It gives the low-pass filter a solid support



B.  It helps the sound quality of transmitters



C.  It prevents unwanted RF radiation



D.  It helps keep electronic parts warmer and more stable



    



N4D06 (B)



What type of filter might be connected to an amateur HF 



transmitter to cut down on harmonic radiation?



A.  A key-click filter



B.  A low-pass filter



C.  A high-pass filter



D.  A CW filter



    



N4D07 (B)



What is one way to tell if radio-frequency interference to a 



receiver is caused by front-end overload?



A.  If connecting a low-pass filter to the transmitter greatly 



cuts down the interference



B.  If the interference is about the same no matter what frequency 



is transmitted



C.  If connecting a low-pass filter to the receiver greatly cuts 



down the interference



D.  If grounding the receiver makes the problem worse



     



N4D08 (C)



If your neighbor reports television interference whenever you are 



transmitting from your amateur station, no matter what frequency 



band you use, what is probably the cause of the interference?



A.  Too little transmitter harmonic suppression



B.  Receiver VR tube discharge



C.  Receiver overload



D.  Incorrect antenna length



    



N4D09 (D)



If your neighbor reports television interference on one or two 



channels only when you are transmitting on the 15-meter band, what 



is probably the cause of the interference?



A.  Too much low-pass filtering on the transmitter



B.  De-ionization of the ionosphere near your neighbor's TV 



antenna



C.  TV receiver front-end overload



D.  Harmonic radiation from your transmitter



    



N4D10 (B)



What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the 



first step in trying to prevent RF overload from an amateur HF 



station transmission?



A.  Low-pass



B.  High-pass



C.  Band pass



D.  Notch



    



N4D11 (B)  



What first step should be taken at a cable TV receiver when trying 



to prevent RF overload from an amateur HF station transmission?



A.  Install a low-pass filter in the cable system transmission 



line



B.  Tighten all connectors and inspect the cable system 



transmission line



C.  Make sure the center conductor of the cable system 



transmission line is well grounded



D.  Install a ceramic filter in the cable system transmission line



    



N4D12 (C)  



What effect might a break in a cable television transmission line 



have on amateur communications?



A.  Cable lines are shielded and a break cannot affect amateur 



communications



B.  Harmonic radiation from the TV receiver may cause the amateur 



transmitter to transmit off-frequency



C.  TV interference may result when the amateur station is 



transmitting, or interference may occur to the amateur receiver



D.  The broken cable may pick up very high voltages when the 



amateur station is transmitting



    



N4D13 (A)



If you are told that your amateur station is causing television 



interference, what should you do?



A.  First make sure that your station is operating properly, and 



that it does not cause interference to your own television



B.  Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest 



FCC office for assistance



C.  Connect a high-pass filter to the transmitter output and a 



low-pass filter to the antenna-input terminals of the television



D.  Continue operating normally, because you have no reason to 



worry about the interference



     



N4D14 (C)  



If harmonic radiation from your transmitter is causing 



interference to television receivers in your neighborhood, who is 



responsible for taking care of the interference?



A.  The owners of the television receivers are responsible



B.  Both you and the owners of the television receivers share the 



responsibility



C.  You alone are responsible, since your transmitter is causing 



the problem



D.  The FCC must decide if you or the owners of the television 



receivers are responsible



     



N4D15 (D)  



If signals from your transmitter are causing front-end overload in 



your neighbor's television receiver, who is responsible for taking 



care of the interference?



A.  You alone are responsible, since your transmitter is causing 



the problem



B.  Both you and the owner of the television receiver share the 



responsibility



C.  The FCC must decide if you or the owner of the television 



receiver are responsible



D.  The owner of the television receiver is responsible



    







SUBELEMENT N5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES 



[4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups]



      



N5A  Metric prefixes, i.e. pico, nano, micro, milli, centi, kilo, 



mega, giga



      



N5A01 (B)



If a dial marked in kilohertz shows a reading of 7125 kHz, what 



would it show if it were marked in megahertz?



A.  0.007125 MHz



B.  7.125 MHz



C.  71.25 MHz



D.  7,125,000 MHz



     



N5A02 (C)



If a dial marked in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what 



would it show if it were marked in kilohertz?



A.  0.003525 kHz



B.  35.25 kHz



C.  3525 kHz



D.  3,525,000 kHz



     



N5A03 (D)



If a dial marked in kilohertz shows a reading of 3725 kHz, what 



would it show if it were marked in hertz?



A.  3.725 Hz



B.  37.25 Hz



C.  3725 Hz



D.  3,725,000 Hz



     



N5A04 (B) 



If an antenna is 400 centimeters long, what is its length in 



meters?



A.  0.0004 meters



B.  4 meters



C.  40 meters



D.  40,000 meters



      



N5A05 (C)



If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to measure a 3000-



milliampere current, what reading would it show?



A.  0.003 amperes



B.  0.3 amperes



C.  3 amperes



D.  3,000,000 amperes



     



N5A06 (B)



If a voltmeter marked in volts is used to measure a 3500-millivolt 



potential, what reading would it show?



A.  0.35 volts



B.  3.5 volts



C.  35 volts



D.  350 volts



    



N5A07 (B)



How many farads is 500,000 microfarads?



A.  0.0005 farads



B.  0.5 farads



C.  500 farads



D.  500,000,000 farads



    



N5A08 (B)



How many microfarads is 1,000,000 picofarads?



A.  0.001 microfarads



B.  1 microfarad



C.  1000 microfarads



D.  1,000,000,000 microfarads



    



N5A09 (C)



How many hertz are in a kilohertz?



A.  10



B.  100



C.  1000



D.  1,000,000



    



N5A10 (C)



How many kilohertz are in a megahertz?



A.  10



B.  100



C.  1000



D.  1,000,000



     



N5A11 (B)



If you have a hand-held transceiver with an output of 500 



milliwatts, how many watts would this be?



A.  0.02



B.  0.5



C.  5



D.  50



    



N5A12 (C)  



If you have a hand-held transceiver with an output of 250 



milliwatts, how many watts would this be?



A.  0.01



B.  25



C.  0.25



D.  0.125



      



N5A13 (C)  



If your station is transmitting on a frequency of 1.265 GHz, what 



would the frequency be if it were given in MHz?



A.  12.65 MHz



B.  126.5 MHz



C.  1265 MHz



D.  12,650 MHz



     



N5B  Concepts and measurement of current, voltage, resistance; 



concept of conductor and insulator



       



N5B01 (D) 



What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?



A.  Voltage



B.  Resistance



C.  Capacitance



D.  Current



     



N5B02 (C)



What is the basic unit of electric current?



A.  The volt



B.  The watt



C.  The ampere



D.  The ohm



     



N5B03 (D)  



Which instrument would you use to measure electric current?



A.  An ohmmeter



B.  A wavemeter



C.  A voltmeter



D.  An ammeter



    



N5B04 (B) 



What is the name of the pressure that forces electrons to flow 



through a circuit?



A.  Magnetomotive force, or inductance



B.  Electromotive force, or voltage



C.  Farad force, or capacitance



D.  Thermal force, or heat



    



N5B05 (A)



What is the basic unit of electromotive force (EMF)?



A.  The volt



B.  The watt



C.  The ampere



D.  The ohm



     



N5B06 (A)



How much voltage does an automobile battery usually supply?



A.  About 12 volts



B.  About 30 volts



C.  About 120 volts



D.  About 240 volts



     



N5B07 (C)



How much voltage does a wall outlet usually supply (in the US)?



A.  About 12 volts



B.  About 30 volts



C.  About 120 volts



D.  About 480 volts



     



N5B08 (B)  



Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or 



electromotive force?



A.  An ammeter



B.  A voltmeter



C.  A wavemeter



D.  An ohmmeter



    



N5B09 (D) 



What limits the current that flows through a circuit for a 



particular applied DC voltage?



A.  Reliance



B.  Reactance



C.  Saturation



D.  Resistance



    



N5B10 (D)



What is the basic unit of resistance?



A.  The volt



B.  The watt



C.  The ampere



D.  The ohm



    



N5B11 (C)  



Which instrument would you use to measure resistance?



A.  An ammeter



B.  A voltmeter



C.  An ohmmeter



D.  A wavemeter



    



N5B12 (C)



What are three good electrical conductors?



A.  Copper, gold, mica



B.  Gold, silver, wood



C.  Gold, silver, aluminum



D.  Copper, aluminum, paper



    



N5B13 (A)



What are four good electrical insulators?



A.  Glass, air, plastic, porcelain



B.  Glass, wood, copper, porcelain



C.  Paper, glass, air, aluminum



D.  Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon



    



N5B14 (B)



What does an electrical insulator do?



A.  It lets electricity flow through it in one direction



B.  It does not let electricity flow through it



C.  It lets electricity flow through it when light shines on it



D.  It lets electricity flow through it



     



N5C  Ohm's Law (any calculations will be kept to a very low level 



- no fractions or decimals) and the concepts of energy and power, 



and open and short circuits



      



N5C01 (A)



What formula shows how voltage, current and resistance relate to 



each other in an electric circuit?



A.  Ohm's Law



B.  Kirchhoff's Law



C.  Ampere's Law



D.  Tesla's Law



     



N5C02 (C)  



Which of the following principles is used when working with almost 



any electronic circuit?



A.  Ampere's Law



B.  Coulomb's Law



C.  Ohm's Law



D.  Tesla's Law



     



N5C03 (C)



If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is 



the voltage across the resistor?



A.  25 volts



B.  52 volts


C.  100 volts



D.  200 volts



    



N5C04 (B) 



If a 100-ohm resistor is connected to 200 volts, what is the 



current through the resistor?



A.  1 ampere



B.  2 amperes



C.  300 amperes



D.  20,000 amperes



    



N5C05 (B) 



If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 



volts, what is the resistance?



A.  3 ohms



B.  30 ohms



C.  93 ohms



D.  270 ohms



    



N5C06 (C) 



What term describes how fast electrical energy is used?



A.  Resistance



B.  Current



C.  Power



D.  Voltage



    



N5C07 (C) 



If you have light bulbs marked 60 watts, 75 watts and 100 watts, 



which one will use more electrical energy in one hour?



A.  The 60 watt bulb



B.  The 75 watt bulb



C.  The 100 watt bulb



D.  They will all be the same



    



N5C08 (B)



What is the basic unit of electrical power?



A.  The ohm



B.  The watt



C.  The volt



D.  The ampere



    



N5C09 (C)



Which electrical circuit can have no current?



A.  A closed circuit



B.  A short circuit



C.  An open circuit



D.  A complete circuit



     



N5C10 (C)  



What type of electrical circuit is created when a fuse blows?



A.  A closed circuit



B.  A bypass circuit



C.  An open circuit



D.  A short circuit



     



N5C11 (D) 



Which electrical circuit draws too much current?



A.  An open circuit



B.  A dead circuit



C.  A closed circuit



D.  A short circuit



    



N5D  Concepts of frequency, including AC vs. DC, frequency units, 



AF vs. RF and wavelength



     



N5D01 (B)



What is the name of a current that flows only in one direction?



A.  An alternating current



B.  A direct current



C.  A normal current



D.  A smooth current



     



N5D02 (D)  



Which of the following will produce an alternating current (AC)?



A.  A lead-acid automotive battery



B.  A solar array



C.  A fuel cell



D.  A commercial generating station



     



N5D03 (A)



What is the name of a current that flows back and forth, first in 



one direction, then in the opposite direction?



A.  An alternating current



B.  A direct current



C.  A rough current



D.  A steady state current



    



N5D04 (A)  



Which of the following will produce a direct current (DC)?



A.  A NiCd battery



B.  An RF signal generator



C.  A commercial generating station



D.  A crystal calibrator



    



N5D05 (D)



What term means the number of times per second that an alternating 



current flows back and forth?



A.  Pulse rate



B.  Speed



C.  Wavelength



D.  Frequency



    



N5D06 (A)



What is the basic unit of frequency?



A.  The hertz



B.  The watt



C.  The ampere



D.  The ohm



    



N5D07 (B) 



Most humans can hear sounds in what frequency range?



A.  0 - 20 Hz



B.  20 - 20,000 Hz



C.  200 - 200,000 Hz



D.  10,000 - 30,000 Hz



    



N5D08 (B) 



Why do we call electrical signals in the frequency range of 20 Hz 



to 20,000 Hz audio frequencies?



A.  Because the human ear cannot sense anything in this range



B.  Because the human ear can sense sounds in this range



C.  Because this range is too low for radio energy



D.  Because the human ear can sense radio waves in this range



    



N5D09 (C)



What is the lowest frequency of electrical energy that is usually 



known as a radio frequency?



A.  20 Hz



B.  2,000 Hz



C.  20,000 Hz



D.  1,000,000 Hz



    



N5D10 (B)



Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency 



range?



A.  Audio



B.  Radio



C.  Hyper



D.  Super-high



    



N5D11 (C)



If a radio wave makes 3,725,000 cycles in one second, what does 



this mean?



A.  The radio wave's voltage is 3725 kilovolts



B.  The radio wave's wavelength is 3725 kilometers



C.  The radio wave's frequency is 3725 kilohertz



D.  The radio wave's speed is 3725 kilometers per second



    



N5D12 (B)



What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean?



A.  6000 cycles per second



B.  60 cycles per second



C.  6000 meters per second



D.  60 meters per second



    



N5D13 (C)



What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one 



complete cycle?



A.  Wave speed



B.  Waveform



C.  Wavelength



D.  Wave spread



    



N5D14 (A)



What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases?



A.  It gets shorter



B.  It gets longer



C.  It stays the same



D.  It disappears



    



N5D15 (A)



What happens to a signal's frequency as its wavelength gets 



longer?



A.  It goes down



B.  It goes up



C.  It stays the same



D.  It disappears



    



SUBELEMENT N6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS 



[2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]



    



N6A  Electrical function and/or schematic representation of 



resistor, switch, fuse, or battery



    



N6A01 (B) 



Why would you use a single-pole, double-throw switch?



A.  To switch one input to one output



B.  To switch one input to either of two outputs



C.  To switch two inputs at the same time, one input to either of 



two outputs, and the other input to either of two outputs



D.  To switch two inputs at the same time, one input to one 



output, and the other input to another output



    



N6A02 (D) 



Why would you use a double-pole, single-throw switch?



A.  To switch one input to one output



B.  To switch one input to either of two outputs



C.  To switch two inputs at the same time, one input to either of 



two outputs, and the other input to either of two outputs



D.  To switch two inputs at the same time, one input to one 



output, and the other input to the other output



    



N6A03 (D)  



Why would you use a fuse?



A.  To create a short circuit when there is too much current in a 



circuit



B.  To change direct current into alternating current



C.  To change alternating current into direct current



D.  To create an open circuit when there is too much current in a 



circuit



    



N6A04 (A) 



Which of these components has a positive and a negative side?



A.  A battery



B.  A potentiometer



C.  A fuse



D.  A resistor



    



N6A05 (B) 



Which of these components has a value that can be varied?



A.  A single-cell battery



B.  A potentiometer



C.  A fuse



D.  A resistor



    



N6A06 (B) 



In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents a variable resistor or



potentiometer?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 6



    



N6A07 (C) 



In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents a fixed resistor?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 4



    



N6A08 (A) 



In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents a fuse?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 3



C.  Symbol 5



D.  Symbol 7



    



N6A09 (D) 



In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents a single-cell battery?



A.  Symbol 7



B.  Symbol 5



C.  Symbol 1



D.  Symbol 4



    



N6A10 (A) 



In Figure N6-2, which symbol represents a single-pole, single-



throw switch?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 4



    



N6A11 (D) 



In Figure N6-2, which symbol represents a single-pole, double-



throw switch?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 4



     



N6A12 (C) 



In Figure N6-2, which symbol represents a double-pole, single-



throw switch?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 4



    



N6A13 (B) 



In Figure N6-2, which symbol represents a double-pole, double-



throw switch?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 4



     



N6B  Electrical function and/or schematic representation of a 



ground, antenna, transistor, integrated circuit or vacuum tube



    



N6B01 (A)



Which component can amplify a small signal using low voltages?



A.  A PNP transistor



B.  A variable resistor



C.  An electrolytic capacitor



D.  A multiple-cell battery



     



N6B02 (B)



Which component conducts electricity from a negative emitter to a 



positive collector when its base voltage is made positive?



A.  A variable resistor



B.  An NPN transistor



C.  A triode vacuum tube



D.  A multiple-cell battery



     



N6B03 (A)



Which component is used to radiate radio energy?



A.  An antenna



B.  An earth ground



C.  A chassis ground



D.  A potentiometer



     



N6B04 (D) 



In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents an earth ground?



A.  Symbol 2



B.  Symbol 5



C.  Symbol 6



D.  Symbol 8



     



N6B05 (B) 



In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents a chassis ground?



A.  Symbol 2



B.  Symbol 5



C.  Symbol 6



D.  Symbol 8



     



N6B06 (D) 



In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents an antenna?



A.  Symbol 2



B.  Symbol 3



C.  Symbol 6



D.  Symbol 7



       



N6B07 (D) 



In Figure N6-3, which symbol represents an NPN transistor?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 4



    



N6B08 (A) 



In Figure N6-3, which symbol represents a PNP transistor?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 4



     



N6B09 (B) 



In Figure N6-3, which symbol represents a triode vacuum tube?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 4



    



N6B10 (C)  



In Figure N6-3, which symbol represents a pentode vacuum tube?



A.  Symbol 1



B.  Symbol 2



C.  Symbol 3



D.  Symbol 4



    



N6B11 (A) 



What is one reason a triode vacuum tube might be used instead of a 



transistor in a circuit?



A.  It handles higher power



B.  It uses lower voltages



C.  It operates more efficiently



D.  It is much smaller



    



N6B12 (C)



Which component can amplify a small signal but must use high 



voltages?



A.  A transistor



B.  An electrolytic capacitor



C.  A vacuum tube



D.  A multiple-cell battery



    



N6B13 (A)  



What is one advantage of using ICs (integrated circuits) instead 



of vacuum tubes in a circuit?



A.  ICs usually combine several functions into one package



B.  ICs can handle high-power input signals



C.  ICs can handle much higher voltages



D.  ICs can handle much higher temperatures



    



SUBELEMENT N7 -- PRACTICAL CIRCUITS 



[2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]



    



N7A  Functional layout of station components including 



transmitter, transceiver, receiver, power supply, antenna, antenna 



switch, antenna feed line, impedance-matching device and SWR meter



     



N7A01 (B) 



What would you connect to your transceiver if you wanted to switch 



it between several antennas?



A.  A terminal-node switch



B.  An antenna switch



C.  A telegraph key switch



D.  A high-pass filter



    



N7A02 (C)



What device might allow use of an antenna on a band it was not 



designed for?



A.  An SWR meter



B.  A low-pass filter



C.  An antenna tuner



D.  A high-pass filter



    



N7A03 (D)



What connects your transceiver to your antenna?



A.  A dummy load



B.  A ground wire



C.  The power cord



D.  A feed line



    



N7A04 (B) 



What might you connect between your transceiver and an antenna 



switch connected to several antennas?



A.  A high-pass filter



B.  An SWR meter



C.  A key-click filter



D.  A mixer



    



N7A05 (D)



If your SWR meter is connected to an antenna tuner on one side, 



what would you connect to the other side of it?



A.  A power supply



B.  An antenna



C.  An antenna switch



D.  A transceiver



     



N7A06 (D) 



Which of the following should never be connected to a transceiver 



output?



A.  An antenna switch



B.  An SWR meter



C.  An antenna



D.  A receiver



     



N7A07 (A)



If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home, 



what should you check first?



A.  The power supply



B.  The speaker



C.  The microphone



D.  The SWR meter



    



N7A08 (A) 



What does an antenna tuner do?



A.  It matches a transceiver output impedance to the antenna 



system impedance



B.  It helps a receiver automatically tune in stations that are 



far away



C.  It switches an antenna system to a transceiver when sending, 



and to a receiver when listening



D.  It switches a transceiver between different kinds of antennas 



connected to one feed line



    



N7A09 (B)



In Figure N7-1, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 3 is a dummy 



antenna, what is block 2?



A.  A terminal-node switch



B.  An antenna switch



C.  A telegraph key switch



D.  A high-pass filter



     



N7A10 (C)  



In Figure N7-1, if block 2 is an antenna switch and block 3 is a 



dummy antenna, what is block 1?



A.  A terminal-node switch



B.  A dipole antenna



C.  A transceiver



D.  A high-pass filter



     



N7A11 (D)  



In Figure N7-1, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 2 is an 



antenna switch, what is block 3?



A.  A terminal-node switch



B.  An SWR meter



C.  A telegraph key switch



D.  A dummy antenna



     



N7A12 (A)



In Figure N7-2, if block 2 is an SWR meter and block 3 is an 



antenna switch, what is block 1?



A.  A transceiver



B.  A high-pass filter



C.  An antenna tuner



D.  A modem



     



N7A13 (C)  



In Figure N7-2, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 3 is an 



antenna switch, what is block 2?



A.  A terminal-node switch



B.  A dipole antenna



C.  An SWR meter



D.  A high-pass filter



     



N7A14 (D)  



In Figure N7-2, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 2 is an SWR 



meter, what is block 3?



A.  A terminal-node switch



B.  A power supply



C.  A telegraph key switch



D.  An antenna switch



     



N7A15 (B)



In Figure N7-3, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 2 is an SWR 



meter, what is block 3?



A.  An antenna switch



B.  An antenna tuner



C.  A key-click filter



D.  A terminal-node controller



     



N7A16 (C)  



In Figure N7-3, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 3 is an 



antenna tuner, what is block 2?



A.  A terminal-node switch



B.  A dipole antenna



C.  An SWR meter



D.  A high-pass filter



    



N7A17 (D)  



In Figure N7-3, if block 2 is an SWR meter and block 3 is an 



antenna tuner, what is block 1?



A.  A terminal-node switch



B.  A power supply



C.  A telegraph key switch



D.  A transceiver



    



N7A18 (C)



What device converts household current to 12 VDC?



A.  A catalytic converter



B.  A low-pass filter



C.  A power supply



D.  An RS-232 interface



     



N7A19 (C) 



Which of these usually needs a heavy-duty power supply?



A.  An SWR meter



B.  A receiver



C.  A 100-watt transceiver



D.  An antenna switch



    



N7B  Station layout and accessories for telegraphy, 



radiotelephone, radioteleprinter (RTTY) or packet



     



N7B01 (B) 



What would you connect to a transceiver to send Morse code?



A.  A key-click filter



B.  A telegraph key



C.  An SWR meter



D.  An antenna switch



     



N7B02 (C) 



Where would you connect a telegraph key to send Morse code?



A.  To a modem



B.  To an antenna switch



C.  To a transceiver



D.  To an antenna



    



N7B03 (B)



What do many amateurs use to help form good Morse code characters?



A.  A key-operated on/off switch



B.  An electronic keyer



C.  A key-click filter



D.  A DTMF keypad



     



N7B04 (C)



Where would you connect a microphone for voice operation?



A.  To a power supply



B.  To an antenna switch



C.  To a transceiver



D.  To an antenna



    



N7B05 (D)



What would you connect to a transceiver for voice operation?



A.  A splatter filter



B.  A terminal-voice controller



C.  A receiver audio filter



D.  A microphone



    



N7B06 (A) 



What would you connect to a transceiver for RTTY operation?



A.  A modem and a teleprinter or computer system



B.  A computer, a printer and a RTTY refresh unit



C.  A data-inverter controller



D.  A modem, a monitor and a DTMF keypad



    



N7B07 (C) 



What would you connect between a transceiver and a computer system 



or teleprinter for RTTY operation?



A.  An RS-432 interface



B.  A DTMF keypad



C.  A modem



D.  A terminal-network controller



    



N7B08 (A)



What would you connect between a computer system and a transceiver 



for packet-radio operation?



A.  A terminal-node controller



B.  A DTMF keypad



C.  An SWR bridge



D.  An antenna tuner



    



N7B09 (C)



Where would you connect a terminal-node controller for packet-



radio operation?



A.  Between your antenna and transceiver



B.  Between your computer and monitor



C.  Between your computer and transceiver



D.  Between your keyboard and computer



    



N7B10 (D)



In RTTY operation, what equipment connects to a modem?



A.  A DTMF keypad, a monitor and a transceiver



B.  A DTMF microphone, a monitor and a transceiver



C.  A transceiver and a terminal-network controller



D.  A transceiver and a teleprinter or computer system



    



N7B11 (B)



In packet-radio operation, what equipment connects to a terminal-



node controller?



A.  A transceiver and a modem



B.  A transceiver and a terminal or computer system



C.  A DTMF keypad, a monitor and a transceiver



D.  A DTMF microphone, a monitor and a transceiver



     



N7B12 (D)  



What important feature must an HF transceiver have for digital 



operation?



A.  A digital readout



B.  Loud audio



C.  A fully solid-state receiver



D.  A fast T/R switching time



    



N7B13 (C)  



What circuit can improve CW reception during crowded band 



conditions?



A.  A high-pass filter



B.  A crystal oscillator



C.  A digital signal processor



D.  A signal generator



    



SUBELEMENT N8 -- SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS 



[2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]



      



N8A  CW, phone, RTTY and data emission types



       



N8A01 (B) 



How is a CW signal usually transmitted?



A.  By frequency-shift keying an RF signal



B.  By on/off keying an RF signal



C.  By audio-frequency-shift keying an oscillator tone



D.  By on/off keying an audio-frequency signal



     



N8A02 (C) 



What is another name for international Morse code emissions?



A.  RTTY



B.  Data



C.  CW



D.  Phone



     



N8A03 (D)  



What type of emission is transmitted by turning an RF signal on 



and off?



A.  Frequency-shift-keyed RTTY



B.  Phase-shift-keyed RTTY



C.  Frequency modulated CW



D.  CW



     



N8A04 (D)



What is the name for voice emissions?



A.  RTTY



B.  Data



C.  CW



D.  Phone



     



N8A05 (A)



Which sideband is commonly used for 10-meter phone operation?



A.  Upper sideband



B.  Lower sideband



C.  Amplitude-compandored sideband



D.  Double sideband



     



N8A06 (C)  



What does the term "phone transmissions" usually mean?



A.  The use of telephones to set up an amateur contact



B.  A phone patch between amateur radio and the telephone system



C.  AM, FM or SSB voice transmissions by radiotelephony



D.  Placing the telephone handset near a transceiver's microphone 



and speaker to relay a telephone call



    



N8A07 (A) 



How is an HF RTTY signal usually produced?



A.  By frequency-shift keying an RF signal



B.  By on/off keying an RF signal



C.  By digital pulse-code keying of an unmodulated carrier



D.  By on/off keying an audio-frequency signal



     



N8A08 (A)



What is the name for narrow-band direct-printing telegraphy 



emissions?



A.  RTTY



B.  Data



C.  CW



D.  Phone



     



N8A09 (B)



What is another name for packet-radio emissions?



A.  RTTY



B.  Data



C.  CW



D.  Phone



       



N8A10 (B)  



Which of the following devices would you need to conduct Amateur 



Radio communications using a data emission?



A.  A telegraph key



B.  A computer



C.  A transducer



D.  A telemetry sensor



      



N8A11 (D)  



What are two advantages to using modern data-transmission 



techniques for communications?



A.  Very simple and low-cost equipment



B.  No parity-checking required and high transmission speed



C.  Easy for mobile stations to use and no additional cabling 



required



D.  High transmission speed and communications reliability



      



N8B  Harmonics and unwanted signals; chirp; superimposed hum; 



equipment and adjustments to help reduce interference to others



      



N8B01 (C)



How does the frequency of a harmonic compare to the desired 



transmitting frequency?



A.  It is slightly more than the desired frequency



B.  It is slightly less than the desired frequency



C.  It is exactly two, or three, or more times the desired 



frequency



D.  It is much less than the desired frequency



     



N8B02 (A)



What is the fourth harmonic of a 7160-kHz signal?



A.  28,640 kHz



B.  35,800 kHz



C.  28,160 kHz



D.  1790 kHz



     



N8B03 (C)



If you are told your station was heard on 21,375 kHz, but at the 



time you were operating on 7125 kHz, what is one reason this could 



happen?



A.  Your transmitter's power-supply filter capacitor was bad



B.  You were sending CW too fast



C.  Your transmitter was radiating harmonic signals



D.  Your transmitter's power-supply filter choke was bad



     



N8B04 (D)



If someone tells you that signals from your hand-held transceiver 



are interfering with other signals on a frequency near yours, what 



may be the cause?



A.  You may need a power amplifier for your hand-held



B.  Your hand-held may have chirp from weak batteries



C.  You may need to turn the volume up on your hand-held



D.  Your hand-held may be transmitting spurious emissions



     



N8B05 (D)



If your transmitter sends signals outside the band where it is 



transmitting, what is this called?



A.  Off-frequency emissions



B.  Transmitter chirping



C.  Side tones



D.  Spurious emissions



    



N8B06 (A) 



What problem may occur if your transmitter is operated without the 



cover and other shielding in place?



A.  It may transmit spurious emissions



B.  It may transmit a chirpy signal



C.  It may transmit a weak signal



D.  It may transmit a phase-inverted signal



    



N8B07 (B)



What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with the 



microphone gain set too high?



A.  It may cause digital interference to computer equipment



B.  It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating 



near its frequency



C.  It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the 



antenna



D.  It may cause interference to other stations operating on a 



higher frequency band



    



N8B08 (B)



What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with too much 



speech processing?



A.  It may cause digital interference to computer equipment



B.  It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating 



near its frequency



C.  It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the 



antenna



D.  It may cause interference to other stations operating on a 



higher frequency band



     



N8B09 (B)



What may happen if an FM transmitter is operated with the 



microphone gain or deviation control set too high?



A.  It may cause digital interference to computer equipment



B.  It may cause interference to other stations operating near its 



frequency



C.  It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the



antenna



D.  It may cause interference to other stations operating on a 



higher



frequency band



     



N8B10 (B)



What may your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver do if you shout 



into its microphone?



A.  It may cause digital interference to computer equipment



B.  It may cause interference to other stations operating near its 



frequency



C.  It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the 



antenna



D.  It may cause interference to other stations operating on a 



higher frequency band



    



N8B11 (D)



What can you do if you are told your FM hand-held or mobile 



transceiver is over-deviating?



A.  Talk louder into the microphone



B.  Let the transceiver cool off



C.  Change to a higher power level



D.  Talk farther away from the microphone



    



N8B12 (C)



What does chirp mean?



A.  An overload in a receiver's audio circuit whenever CW is 



received



B.  A high-pitched tone that is received along with a CW signal



C.  A small change in a transmitter's frequency each time it is 



keyed



D.  A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms up



     



N8B13 (D)



What can be done to keep a CW transmitter from chirping?



A.  Add a low-pass filter



B.  Use an RF amplifier



C.  Keep the power supply current very steady



D.  Keep the power supply voltages very steady



    



N8B14 (D)



What may cause a buzzing or hum in the signal of an HF 



transmitter?



A.  Using an antenna that is the wrong length



B.  Energy from another transmitter



C.  Bad design of the transmitter's RF power output circuit



D.  A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter's power supply



     



N8B15 (B)  



What should you check if you change your transceiver's microphone 



from a mobile type to a base station type?



A.  Check the CTCSS levels on the oscilloscope



B.  Make an on-the-air radio check to ensure the quality of your 



signal



C.  Check the amount of current the transceiver is now using



D.  Check to make sure the frequency readout is now correct



      



N8B16 (C)  



Why is good station grounding needed when connecting your computer 



to your transceiver to receive high-frequency data signals?



A.  Good grounding raises the receiver's noise floor



B.  Good grounding protects the computer from nearby lightning 



strikes



C.  Good grounding will minimize stray noise on the receiver



D.  FCC rules require all equipment to be grounded



      



SUBELEMENT N9 -- ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES 



[3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]



      



N9A  Wavelength vs. antenna length; multiband antenna advantages 



and disadvantages



     



N9A01 (D)



How do you calculate the length (in feet) of a half-wavelength 



dipole antenna?



A.  Divide 150 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) 



[150/f(in MHz)]



B.  Divide 234 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) 



[234/f (in MHz)]



C.  Divide 300 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) 



[300/f (in MHz)]



D.  Divide 468 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) 



[468/f (in MHz)]



    



N9A02 (B)



How do you calculate the length (in feet) of a quarter-wavelength 



vertical antenna?



A.  Divide 150 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) 



[150/f (in MHz)]



B.  Divide 234 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) 



[234/f (in MHz)]



C.  Divide 300 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) 



[300/f (in MHz)]



D.  Divide 468 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) 



[468/f (in MHz)]



      



N9A03 (A) 



How long should you make a half-wavelength dipole antenna for 3725 



kHz (measured to the nearest foot)?



A.  126 ft



B.  81 ft



C.  63 ft



D.  40 ft



    



N9A04 (C) 



How long should you make a half-wavelength dipole antenna for 



28.150 MHz (measured to the nearest foot)?



A.  22 ft



B.  11 ft



C.  17 ft



D.  34 ft



      



N9A05 (D) 



How long should you make a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 



7125 kHz (measured to the nearest foot)?



A.  11 ft



B.  16 ft



C.  21 ft



D.  33 ft



     



N9A06 (B) 



How long should you make a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 



21.125 MHz (measured to the nearest foot)?



A.  7 ft



B.  11 ft



C.  4 ft



D.  22 ft



     



N9A07 (C) 



How long should you make a half-wavelength vertical antenna for 



223 MHz (measured to the nearest inch)?



A.  112 inches



B.  50 inches



C.  25 inches



D.  12 inches



     



N9A08 (A)



If an antenna is made longer, what happens to its resonant 



frequency?



A.  It decreases



B.  It increases



C.  It stays the same



D.  It disappears



    



N9A09 (B)



If an antenna is made shorter, what happens to its resonant 



frequency?



A.  It decreases



B.  It increases



C.  It stays the same



D.  It disappears



    



N9A10 (A) 



How could you decrease the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?



A.  Lengthen the antenna



B.  Shorten the antenna



C.  Use less feed line



D.  Use a smaller size feed line



    



N9A11 (B) 



How could you increase the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?



A.  Lengthen the antenna



B.  Shorten the antenna



C.  Use more feed line



D.  Use a larger size feed line



    



N9A12 (A)  



What is one advantage to using a multiband antenna?



A.  You can operate on several bands with a single feed line



B.  Multiband antennas always have high gain



C.  You can transmit on several frequencies simultaneously



D.  Multiband antennas offer poor harmonic suppression



    



N9A13 (D)  



What is one disadvantage to using a multiband antenna?



A.  It must always be used with a balun



B.  It will always have low gain



C.  It cannot handle high power



D.  It can radiate unwanted harmonics



    



N9B  Yagi parts, concept of directional antennas



    



N9B01 (B)



In what direction does a Yagi antenna send out radio energy?



A.  It goes out equally in all directions



B.  Most of it goes in one direction



C.  Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions



D.  Most of it is aimed high into the air



    



N9B02 (C) 



Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna?



A.  1/4 wavelength



B.  1/3 wavelength



C.  1/2 wavelength



D.  1 wavelength



    



N9B03 (D)



In Figure N9-1, what is the name of element 2 of the Yagi antenna?



A.  Director



B.  Reflector



C.  Boom



D.  Driven element



    



N9B04 (A)



In Figure N9-1, what is the name of element 3 of the Yagi antenna?



A.  Director



B.  Reflector



C.  Boom



D.  Driven element



    



N9B05 (B)



In Figure N9-1, what is the name of element 1 of the Yagi antenna?



A.  Director



B.  Reflector



C.  Boom



D.  Driven element



     



N9B06 (B)



Looking at the Yagi antenna in Figure N9-1, in which direction on 



the page would it send most of its radio energy?



A.  Left



B.  Right



C.  Top



D.  Bottom



    



N9B07 (B)  



Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the gain 



of a properly designed Yagi antenna?



A.  The number of elements



B.  Boom length



C.  Element spacing



D.  Element diameter



    



N9B08 (B) 



What is one advantage of a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna as 



compared to a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna for VHF or UHF 



mobile operations?



A.  A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle more power



B.  A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more gain



C.  A 5/8-wavelength antenna has less corona loss



D.  A 5/8-wavelength antenna is easier to install on a car



    



N9B09 (C) 



In what direction does a vertical antenna send out radio energy?



A.  Most of it goes in two opposite directions



B.  Most of it goes high into the air



C.  Most of it goes equally in all horizontal directions



D.  Most of it goes in one direction



    



N9B10 (C) 



If the ends of a half-wave dipole antenna (mounted at least a 



half-wavelength high) point east and west, which way would the 



antenna send out radio energy?



A.  Equally in all directions



B.  Mostly up and down



C.  Mostly north and south



D.  Mostly east and west



    



N9B11 (B)  



Which is true of "rubber duck" antennas for hand-held 



transceivers?



A.  The shorter they are, the better they perform



B.  They are much less efficient than a quarter-wavelength 



telescopic antenna



C.  They offer the highest amount of gain possible for any hand-



held transceiver antenna



D.  They have a good long-distance communications range



     



N9C  Feed lines, baluns and polarization via element orientation



     



N9C01 (D)



What is a coaxial cable?



A.  Two wires side-by-side in a plastic ribbon



B.  Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating rods



C.  Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral



D.  A center wire inside an insulating material covered by a metal 



sleeve or shield



    



N9C02 (B)



Why does coaxial cable make a good antenna feed line?



A.  You can make it at home, and its impedance matches most 



amateur antennas



B.  It is weatherproof, and it can be used near metal objects



C.  It is weatherproof, and its impedance is higher than that of 



most amateur antennas



D.  It can be used near metal objects, and its impedance is higher 



than that of most amateur antennas



    



N9C03 (B)



Which kind of antenna feed line can carry radio energy very well 



even if it is buried in the ground?



A.  Twin lead



B.  Coaxial cable



C.  Parallel conductor



D.  Twisted pair



     



N9C04 (A)



Why should you use only good quality coaxial cable and connectors 



for a UHF antenna system?



A.  To keep RF loss low



B.  To keep television interference high



C.  To keep the power going to your antenna system from getting 



too high



D.  To keep the standing-wave ratio of your antenna system high



    



N9C05 (A)



What is the best antenna feed line to use if it must be put near 



grounded metal objects?



A.  Coaxial cable



B.  Twin lead



C.  Twisted pair



D.  Ladder-line



    



N9C06 (B)



What is parallel-conductor feed line?



A.  Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral



B.  Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating material



C.  A center wire inside an insulating material that is covered by 



a metal sleeve or shield



D.  A metal pipe that is as wide or slightly wider than a 



wavelength of the signal it carries



    



N9C07 (D) 



What are some reasons to use parallel-conductor, open-wire feed 



line?



A.  It has low impedance and will operate with a high SWR



B.  It will operate with a high SWR and it works well when tied 



down to metal objects



C.  It has a low impedance and has less loss than coaxial cable



D.  It will operate with a high SWR and has less loss than coaxial 



cable



    



N9C08 (A) 



What are some reasons not to use ladder line to feed your antenna?



A.  It does not work well when tied down to metal objects and you 



must use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver



B.  It is difficult to make at home and it does not work very well 



with a high SWR



C.  It does not work well when tied down to metal objects and it 



cannot operate under high power



D.  You must use an impedance-matching device with your 



transceiver and it does not work very well with a high SWR



    



N9C09 (B)



What kind of antenna feed line is made of two conductors held 



apart by insulated rods?



A.  Coaxial cable



B.  Open-conductor ladder line



C.  Twin lead in a plastic ribbon



D.  Twisted pair



    



N9C10 (C)



What would you use to connect a coaxial cable of 50-ohms impedance 



to an antenna of 35-ohms impedance?



A.  A terminating resistor



B.  An SWR meter



C.  An impedance-matching device



D.  A low-pass filter



    



N9C11 (D)



What does balun mean?



A.  Balanced antenna network



B.  Balanced unloader



C.  Balanced unmodulator



D.  Balanced to unbalanced



    



N9C12 (A)



Where would you install a balun to feed a dipole antenna with 50-



ohm coaxial cable?



A.  Between the coaxial cable and the antenna



B.  Between the transmitter and the coaxial cable



C.  Between the antenna and the ground



D.  Between the coaxial cable and the ground



    



SUBELEMENT N0 -- RF SAFETY  



[5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]



     



N0A  RF safety fundamentals



     



N0A01 (D)  



What factors affect the resulting RF fields radiated into the 



environment by an amateur transceiver?



A.  Frequency and power level of the RF field



B.  Antenna height and distance from the antenna to a person



C.  Radiation pattern of the antenna



D.  All of these answers are correct



    



N0A02 (C)  



Which of the following effects on the human body are a result of 



exposure to high levels of RF energy?



A.  Very rapid hair growth



B.  Very rapid growth of fingernails and toenails



C.  Possible heating of body tissue



D.  High levels of RF energy have no known effect on the human 



body



     



N0A03 (D)  



Why should you not stand within reach of any transmitting antenna 



when it is being fed with 1500 watts of RF energy?



A.  It could result in the loss of the ability to move muscles



B.  Your body would reflect the RF energy back to its source



C.  It could cause cooling of body tissue



D.  You could accidentally touch the antenna and be injured



    



N0A04 (A)  



What impact does a high concentration of RF energy have on the 



human body?



A.  It can heat tissue below the body's surface



B.  There are no known adverse biological effects



C.  It can cause rapid, uncontrolled weight gain



D.  It can produce arthritis-like joint pains



    



N0A05 (B)  



What is one effect of nonionizing radiation on the human body?



A.  Cooling of body tissue



B.  Heating of body tissue



C.  Rapid dehydration



D.  Sudden hair loss



    



N0A06 (A)  



What factors determine the location of the boundary between the 



near and far fields of an antenna?



A.  Wavelength and the physical size of the antenna



B.  Antenna height and element length



C.  Boom length and element diameter



D.  Transmitter power and antenna gain



    



N0A07 (C)  



Why should you not stand within reach of a high-gain 3-element 



"triband" Yagi  transmitting antenna when it is being fed with 



1500 watts of RF energy?



A.  It could result in the loss of the ability to move muscles



B.  Your body would reflect the RF energy back to its source



C.  You could accidentally touch the antenna and be injured



D.  It could cause cooling of body tissue



    



N0A08 (C)  



Why should you not stand within reach of a transmitting antenna 



when it is being fed with 1000 watts of RF energy?



A.  It could result in the loss of the ability to move muscles



B.  Your body would reflect the RF energy back to its source



C.  You could accidentally touch the antenna and be injured



D.  It could cause cooling of body tissue



    



N0A09 (A)  



Why should you not stand within reach of a high-gain parabolic-



dish transmitting antenna when it is being fed with 1500 watts of 



RF energy?



A.  You could accidentally touch the antenna and be injured



B.  It could result in the loss of the ability to move muscles



C.  Your body would reflect the RF energy back to its source



D.  It could cause cooling of body tissue



    



N0A10 (A)  



Why should you not stand within reach of a high-gain 17-element 



Yagi transmitting antenna transmitting on 146 MHz when it is being 



fed with 1000 watts of RF energy?



A.  You could accidentally touch the antenna and be injured



B.  It could result in the loss of the ability to move muscles



C.  Your body would reflect the RF energy back to its source



D.  It could cause cooling of body tissue



    



N0A11 (A)  



Why should you not stand within reach of a high-gain multiple-



antenna transmitting array when it is being fed with 1500 watts of 



RF energy?



A.  It could cause heating of body tissue



B.  It could result in the loss of the ability to move muscles



C.  Your body would reflect the RF energy back to its source



D.  It could cause cooling of body tissue



    



N0B  RF safety terms and definitions



    



N0B01 (B)  



In what type of RF radiation exposure environment are amateurs and 



their households considered to be located?



A.  An excluded RF radiation exposure environment



B.  A "controlled" RF environment



C.  An "uncontrolled" RF environment



D.  Both a "controlled" and "uncontrolled" environment



    



N0B02 (B)  



What does the term "uncontrolled RF environment" mean when it is 



applied to RF radiation exposure?



A.  A radio operator is not exercising proper antenna radiation 



safety



B.  A location where there is RF radiation exposure to persons who 



have no knowledge or control of their exposure



C.  A location where there is RF radiation exposure to persons who 



are aware of the potential for exposure



D.  A transmitting station lacks the proper RF safety 



certification



    



N0B03 (A)  



What does the term "controlled RF environment" mean when it is 



applied to RF radiation exposure?



A.  A location where there is RF radiation exposure to persons who 



are aware of the potential for exposure



B.  A location that has been made inaccessible by a security fence



C.  A location where there is RF radiation exposure to persons who 



have no knowledge or control of their exposure



D.  A transmitter has been certified by the FCC to be safe for use 



at all frequencies



    



N0B04 (B)  



What unit of measurement specifies RF electric field strength?



A.  Coulombs (C) at one wavelength from the antenna



B.  Volts per meter (V/m)



C.  Microfarads (uF) at the transmitter output



D.  Microhenrys (uH) per square centimeter



    



N0B05 (D)  



What unit of measurement specifies RF magnetic field strength?



A.  Coulombs (C) at one wavelength from the antenna



B.  microfarads (uF) at the transmitter output



C.  In polar units (Pu) at the antenna terminals



D.  Amperes per meter (A/m)



     



N0B06 (D)  



Which of the following is considered to be nonionizing radiation?



A.  X-radiation



B.  Gamma radiation



C.  Ultra violet radiation



D.  Radio frequency radiation



    



N0B07 (A)  



In what type of RF environment are amateurs and their immediate 



families considered to be located?



A.  They are in a "controlled" RF environment



B.  They are excluded from the RF radiation exposure guidelines



C.  They are in an "uncontrolled" or "general public" environment



D.  None of these choices are correct



    



N0B08 (A)  



What is radiofrequency radiation?



A.  Waves of electric and magnetic energy between 3 kHz and 300 



GHz



B.  Ultra-violet rays emitted by the sun between 20 Hz and 300 GHz



C.  Sound energy given off by a radio receiver



D.  Beams of X-Rays and Gamma rays emitted by a radio transmitter



    



N0B09 (D)  



Why are residential neighbors of an amateur station considered to 



be in an "uncontrolled" environment?



A.  Because they are not under the jurisdiction of the Federal 



Communications Commission



B.  Because they are generally aware of the potential for RF 



radiation exposure



C.  Because the RF environment is primarily controlled by the sun



D.  Because they cannot exercise control over their RF radiation 



exposure



    



N0B10 (A)  



Which of the following units of measurement are used to specify 



the power density of a radiated RF signal?



A.  Milliwatts per square centimeter



B.  Volts per meter



C.  Amperes per meter



D.  All of these choices are correct



     



N0B11 (A)  



Referring to Figure NT0-1, which of the following equations should 



you use to calculate the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) on the 



Novice HF bands for a controlled RF radiation exposure 



environment?



A.  Maximum permissible power density in mw per square cm equals 



900 divided by the square of the operating frequency, in MHz



B.  Maximum permissible power density in mw per square cm equals 



180 divided by the square of the operating frequency, in MHz



C.  Maximum permissible power density in mw per square cm equals 



900 divided by the operating frequency, in MHz



D.  Maximum permissible power density in mw per square cm equals 



180 divided by the operating frequency, in MHz



    



N0B12 (B)  



Referring to Figure NT0-1, which of the following equations should 



you use to calculate the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) on the 



Novice HF bands for a controlled RF radiation exposure 



environment?



A.  Maximum permissible electric field strength in volts per meter 



equals 824 divided by the operating frequency, in MHz



B.  Maximum permissible electric field strength in volts per meter 



equals 1842 divided by the operating frequency, in MHz



C.  Maximum permissible electric field strength in volts per meter 



equals 1842 divided by the square of the operating frequency, in 



MHz



D.  Maximum permissible electric field strength in volts per meter 



equals 824 divided by the operating frequency, in MHz



    



N0B13 (B)  



Referring to Figure NT0-1, which of the following equations should 



you use to calculate the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) on the 



Novice HF bands for an uncontrolled RF radiation exposure 



environment?



A.  Maximum permissible power density in mw per square cm equals 



900 divided by the square of the operating frequency, in MHz



B.  Maximum permissible power density in mw per square cm equals 



180 divided by the square of the operating frequency, in MHz



C.  Maximum permissible power density in mw per square cm equals 



900 divided by the operating frequency, in MHz



D.  Maximum permissible power density in mw per square cm equals 



180 divided by the operating frequency, in MHz



    



N0B14 (C)  



Referring to Figure NT0-1, which of the following equations should 



you use to calculate the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) on the 



Novice HF bands for an uncontrolled RF radiation exposure 



environment?



A.  Maximum permissible magnetic field strength in amperes per 



meter equals 2.19 divided by the square of the operating 



frequency, in MHz



B.  Maximum permissible magnetic field strength in amperes per 



meter equals 4.89 divided by the square of the operating 



frequency, in MHz



C.  Maximum permissible magnetic field strength in amperes per 



meter equals 2.19 divided by the operating frequency, in MHz



D.  Maximum permissible magnetic field strength in amperes per 



meter equals 4.89 divided by the operating frequency, in MHz



    



N0C  RF safety rules and guidelines



     



N0C01 (D)  



What amateur stations must comply with the requirements for RF 



radiation exposure spelled out in Part 97?



A.  Stations with antennas that exceed 10 dBi of gain.



B.  Stations that have a duty cycle greater than 50 percent.



C.  Stations that run more than 50 watts peak envelope power (PEP)



D.  All amateur stations regardless of power



    



N0C02 (C)  



Who is responsible for ensuring that an amateur station complies 



with FCC Rules about RF radiation exposure?



A.  The Federal Communications Commission



B.  The Environmental Protection Agency



C.  The licensee of the amateur station



D.  The Food and Drug Administration



    



N0C03 (C)  



At what frequencies do the FCC's RF radiation exposure guidelines 



incorporate limits for Maximum Permissible Exposure (MPE)?



A.  All frequencies below 30 MHz



B.  All frequencies between 20,000 Hz and 10 MHz



C.  All frequencies between 300 kHz and 100 GHz



D.  All frequencies above 300 GHz



    



N0C04 (B)  



Which category of transceiver is not excluded from the requirement 



to perform a routine station evaluation?



A.  Hand-held transceivers



B.  Base station transmitters with power outputs of more than 50 



watts peak envelope power (PEP)



C.  Vehicle-mounted push-to-talk mobile radios



D.  Portable transceivers with high duty cycles



    



N0C05 (D)  



To determine compliance with the maximum permitted exposure (MPE) 



levels, safe exposure levels for RF energy are averaged for an 



"uncontrolled" RF environment over what time period?



A.  6 minutes



B.  10 minutes



C.  15 minutes



D.  30 minutes



     



N0C06 (A)  



To determine compliance with the maximum permitted exposure (MPE) 



levels, safe exposure levels for RF energy are averaged for a 



"controlled" RF environment over what time period?



A.  6 minutes



B.  10 minutes



C.  15 minutes



D.  30 minutes



    



N0C07 (C)  



What do the FCC RF radiation exposure regulations establish?



A.  Maximum radiated field strength



B.  Minimum permissible HF antenna height



C.  Maximum permissible exposure limits



D.  All of these choices are correct



    



N0C08 (D)  



What do the FCC Rules specify for the maximum RF radiation field 



strength?



A.  Amateur stations may not exceed an RF radiated field strength 



of 5 volts per meter



B.  No station may transmit a signal that produces an RF radiated 



field strength greater than 10 amperes per meter



C.  The maximum permissible power density from an amateur station 



antenna is 50 watts per square meter



D.  The FCC Rules do not specify maximum RF radiation field 



strengths



    



N0C09 (B)  



What is the averaging time to be considered for maximum 



permissible exposure (MPE) in controlled RF exposure environments?



A.  3 minutes



B.  6 minutes



C.  30 minutes



D.  60 minutes



    



N0C10 (C)  



What is the averaging time to be considered for maximum 



permissible exposure (MPE) in uncontrolled RF exposure 



environments?



A.  3 minutes



B.  6 minutes



C.  30 minutes



D.  60 minutes



    



N0C11 (C)  



Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the maximum permissible 



exposure (MPE) limit for controlled environments on 3.7 MHz?



A.  Equivalent far-field power density of 1.32 milliwatts per 



square centimeter



B.  Equivalent far-field power density of 13.1 milliwatts per 



square centimeter



C.  Equivalent far-field power density of 65.7 milliwatts per 



square centimeter



D.  Equivalent far-field power density of 500 milliwatts per 



square centimeter



    



N0C12 (B)  



Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the maximum permissible 



exposure (MPE) limit for uncontrolled environments on 28.4 MHz?



A.  Equivalent far-field power density of 0.077 milliwatts per 



square centimeter



B.  Equivalent far-field power density of 0.22 milliwatts per 



square centimeter



C.  Equivalent far-field power density of 1.1 milliwatts per 



square centimeter



D.  Equivalent far-field power density of 29.1 milliwatts per 



square centimeter



    



N0C13 (B)  



Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the maximum permissible 



exposure (MPE) limit for uncontrolled environments on the 222-MHz 



Novice band?



A.  0.073 milliwatts per square centimeter



B.  0.2 milliwatts per square centimeter



C.  1 milliwatts per square centimeter



D.  27.5 milliwatts per square centimeter



    



N0C14 (C)  



Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the maximum permissible 



exposure (MPE) limit for controlled environments on the 1270-MHz 



Novice band?



A.  0.011 milliwatts per square centimeter



B.  0.85 milliwatts per square centimeter



C.  4.2 milliwatts per square centimeter



D.  100 milliwatts per square centimeter



    



N0C15 (A)  



How does an Amateur Radio operator demonstrate that he or she has 



read and understood the FCC rules about RF-radiation exposure?



A.  By indicating his or her understanding of this requirement on 



the Form 610 at the time of application



B.  By posting a copy of Part 97 at the station



C.  By completing an FCC Environmental Assessment Form



D.  By completing an FCC Environmental Impact Statement



    



N0C16 (C)  



What is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation 



environment from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna 



on 3.5 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  6 feet



B.  0.7 foot



C.  1.5 feet



D.  3 feet



    



N0C17 (A)  



What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation 



environment  from a station using a quarter-wave vertical antenna 



on 28 MHz at 100 watts  PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  4.9 feet



B.  3.5 feet



C.  7 feet



D.  11 feet



    



N0C18 (A)  



What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation 



environment from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna 



on 7 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  1.4 foot



B.  2 feet



C.  3.1 feet



D.  6.5 feet



     



N0C19 (C)  



What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation 



environment from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna 



on 21 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  1.5 feet



B.  2 feet



C.  4.1 feet



D.  9.2 feet



     



N0C20 (B)  



What is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation 



environment from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna 



on 21 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  4.1 feet



B.  9.2 feet



C.  8 feet



D.  13 feet



    



N0C21 (C)



Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a 



controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a half-



wavelength dipole antenna on 3.5 MHz at 100 watts?



A.  6 feet



B.  1.5 feet



C.  0.7 foot



D.  3 feet



    



N0C22 (B)



Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an 



uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 



quarter-wave vertical antenna on 7 MHz at 100 watts?



A.  4.0 feet



B.  2.7 feet



C.  1.2 feet



D.  7.5 feet



     



N0C23 (A)



What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation 



environment from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna 



on 7 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1? 



A.  1.4 foot



B.  3.1 feet



C.  4.5 feet



D.  6.5 feet



    



N0C24 (A)



Using Table NT0-1 what is the controlled limit for a station using 



a 21 MHz quarter-wave vertical at 100 watts?



A.  3.7 feet



B.  6 feet



C.  8.2 feet



D.  20 feet



    



N0C25 (B)



Using Table NT0-1 what is the uncontrolled limit for a station 



using a 21 MHz quarter-wave vertical at 100 watts?



A.  3.7 feet



B.  8.2 feet



C.  11.5 feet



D.  20 feet



        



N0C26 (B)



What is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation 



environment  from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna 



on 21 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  2.5 feet



B.  9.2 feet



C.  4.1 feet



D.  13 feet



    



N0C27 (A)



Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an 



uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 28 



MHz half-wavelength dipole antenna at 100 watts?



A.  12.3 feet



B.  5.5 feet



C.  26.5 feet



D.  30 feet



    



N0D  Routine station evaluation



    



N0D01 (C)  



Which of the following antennas would (generally) create a 



stronger RF field on the ground beneath the antenna?



A.  A horizontal loop at 30 meters above ground



B.  A 3-element Yagi at 30 meters above ground



C.  A 1/2 wave dipole antenna 5 meters above ground



D.  A 3-element Quad at 30 meters above ground



    



N0D02 (B)  



How does an amateur determine if his or her transmitted signal is 



within the RF radiation exposure guidelines?



A.  By calling the FCC for a station inspection



B.  By determining or analyzing transmitted field strength and 



power density



C.  Compliance is determined by the transmitter manufacturer



D.  By the use of a reflectometer and standing wave ratio (SWR) 



readings



    



N0D03 (D)  



How may an amateur determine that his or her station complies with 



FCC RF-exposure regulations?



A.  By calculation, based on FCC OET Bulletin No. 65



B.  By calculation, based on computer modeling



C.  By measurement, measuring the field strength using calibrated 



equipment



D.  Any of these choices



    



N0D04 (B)



Below what power level are amateur radio operators categorically 



excluded from routine evaluation to predict if the RF exposure  



from their station  could be excessive?



A.  25 watts peak envelope power (PEP)



B.  50 watts peak envelope power (PEP)



C.  100 watts peak envelope power (PEP)



D.  500 watts peak envelope power (PEP)



    



N0D05 (B)  



Above what transmitter power level is a routine RF radiation 



evaluation required?



A.  25 watts peak envelope power (PEP)



B.  50 watts peak envelope power (PEP)



C.  100 watts input power



D.  250 watts output power



    



N0D06 (D)  



What must you do with the records of a routine RF radiation 



exposure evaluation?



A.  They must be sent to the nearest FCC field office



B.  They must be sent to the Environmental Protection Agency



C.  They must be attached to each Form 610 when it is sent to the 



FCC for processing



D.  Though not required, records may prove useful if the FCC asks 



for documentation to substantiate that an evaluation has been 



performed



    



N0D07 (A)  



Which of the following instruments might you use to measure the RF 



radiation exposure levels in the vicinity of your station?



A.  A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated field 



strength sensor



B.  A calibrated in-line wattmeter with a calibrated length of 



feed line



C.  A calibrated RF impedance bridge



D.  An amateur receiver with an S meter calibrated to National 



Bureau of Standards and Technology station WWV



    



N0D08 (D)  



What factors can affect the accuracy of field strength 



measurements?



A.  Interaction of the probe and measurement personnel with the 



near field



B.  Frequency response of the test equipment and probes



C.  Orientation of the probe with respect to the antenna polarity



D.  All of these choices are correct



    



N0D09 (A)  



What effect does the antenna gain and directivity have on a 



routine RF exposure evaluation?



A.  Gain and directivity are part of the formulas used to perform 



calculations



B.  The maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits are directly 



proportional to antenna gain



C.  The maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits are inversely 



proportional to antenna directivity



D.  All of these choices are correct



    



N0D10 (B)  



What effect will nearby conductors such as telephone wiring or 



aluminum siding have on the field strength at any point near an 



antenna?



A.  Conductors that are not part of the actual antenna will have 



no effect on the field strength



B.  Conductors in the near field will interact with the field to 



add or subtract intensity, resulting in areas of varying field 



strength



C.  Conductors in the near field will always interact with the 



field to increase the strength of the signal radiated from the 



antenna



D.  Conductors in the near field will always interact with the 



field to decrease the strength of the signal radiated from the 



antenna



     



N0D11 (C)  



As a general rule, what effect does antenna height above ground 



have on the RF exposure environment?



A.  Power density is not related to antenna height or distance 



from the RF exposure environment



B.  Antennas that are farther above ground produce higher maximum 



permissible exposures (MPE)



C.  The higher the antenna the less the RF radiation exposure at 



ground level



D.  RF radiation exposure is increased when the antenna is higher 



above ground



    



N0E  Practical applications



    



N0E01 (D)  



Which of the following steps is not helpful in reducing RF 



radiation exposure?



A.  Reduce power



B.  Adjust operating times or mode to produce a lower duty cycle



C.  Locate the antenna more distant from areas of controlled and 



uncontrolled exposure



D.  Install a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line



    



N0E02 (C)  



Which of the following steps would help you to comply with RF-



radiation exposure guidelines for uncontrolled RF environments?



A.  Reduce transmitting times within a 6-minute period to reduce 



the station duty cycle



B.  Operate only during periods of high solar absorption



C.  Reduce transmitting times within a 30-minute period to reduce 



the station duty cycle



D.  Operate only on high duty cycle modes



    



N0E03 (C)  



Which of the following steps would help you to comply with RF-



exposure guidelines for controlled RF environments?



A.  Reduce transmitting times within a 30-minute period to reduce 



the station duty cycle



B.  Operate only during periods of high solar absorption



C.  Reduce transmitting times within a 6-minute period to reduce 



the station duty cycle



D.  Operate only on high duty cycle modes



    



N0E04 (B) 



Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is 



not too close to your head when transmitting?



A.  To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions



B.  To reduce your exposure to the radio-frequency energy



C.  To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction



D.  To keep electrostatic charges from harming the operator



    



N0E05 (A) 



What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting 



antenna?



A.  Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get 



near it when you are transmitting



B.  Make sure that RF field screens are in place



C.  Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy 



pointing in the correct direction



D.  Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed 



point



    



N0E06 (A)  



How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver 



while you are transmitting?



A.  Away from your head and away from others



B.  Towards the station you are contacting



C.  Away from the station you are contacting



D.  Down to bounce the signal off the ground



    



N0E07 (B)  



Why should your antennas be located so that no one can touch them 



while you are transmitting?



A.  Touching the antenna might cause television interference



B.  Touching the antenna might cause RF burns



C.  Touching the antenna might cause it to radiate harmonics



D.  Touching the antenna might cause it to go into self-



oscillation



    



N0E08 (D) 



Why should you make sure that no one can touch an open-wire feed 



line while you are transmitting with it?



A.  Because open-wire feed lines radiate large electric fields



B.  Because the radiation from open-wire feed lines can cause body 



tissue cooling



C.  Because contact might cause spurious emissions



D.  Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person



    



N0E09 (C) 



For the least RF exposure, what is the best thing to do with your 



transmitting antennas?



A.  Use vertical polarization



B.  Use horizontal polarization



C.  Mount the antennas where no one can come near them



D.  Mount the antenna close to the ground



    



N0E10 (B)  



To avoid excessively high human exposure to RF fields, how should 



amateur antennas generally be mounted?



A.  With a high current point near ground



B.  As far away from accessible areas as possible



C.  On a nonmetallic mast



D.  With the elements in a horizontal polarization



    



N0E11 (A)



For the least RF radiation exposure, what is the minimum height at 



which you should place your horizontal wire antenna?



A.  High enough to ensure compliance with the FCC RF radiation 



exposure guidelines



B.  As close to the ground as possible



C.  Just high enough so you can easily reach it for adjustments or 



repairs



D.  Above high-voltage electrical lines



    



N0E12 (D)  



What action can amateur operators take to prevent exposure to RF 



radiation in excess of the FCC-specified limits?



A.  Alter antenna patterns



B.  Relocate antennas



C.  Revise  station technical parameters, such as frequency, 



power, or emission type



D.  All of these choices are correct



    



N0E13 (C)  



Which of the following radio frequency emissions will result in 



the least RF radiation exposure if they all have the same peak 



envelope power (PEP)?



A.  Two-way exchanges of phase-modulated (PM) telephony



B.  Two-way exchanges of frequency-modulated (FM) telephony



C.  Two-way exchanges of single-sideband (SSB) telephony



D.  Two-way exchanges of Morse code (CW) communication



    



N0E14 (A)  



What is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation 



environment from a station using a 3-element "triband" Yagi 



antenna on 21 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  16.4 feet



B.  14.5 feet



C.  7.3 feet



D.  23 feet



    



N0E15 (A)  



What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation 



environment from a station using a 3-element "triband" Yagi 



antenna on 21 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  7.3 feet



B.  10 feet



C.  16.4 feet



D.  23 feet



    



N0E16 (B)  



What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation 



environment from a station using a 3-element "triband" Yagi 



antenna on 28 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  15 feet



B.  11 feet



C.  24.5 feet



D.  18 feet



    



N0E17 (C)  



What is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation 



environment from a station using a 3-element "triband" Yagi 



antenna on 28 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1?



A.  7 feet



B.  11 feet



C.  24.5 feet



D.  34 feet







*EOF