ELEMENT 3B
GENERAL QUESTION POOL
Element 3B (General Class) Question Pool
Last updated 10:40 AM EDT on 04/19/96
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QUESTION POOL
ELEMENT 3B (GENERAL CLASS)
as released by
Question Pool Committee
National Conference of
Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
December 1, 1993
SUBELEMENT G1 - COMMISSION'S RULES [4 exam questions - 4 groups]
G1A General control operator frequency privileges; local
control, repeater and harmful interference definitions, third-
party communications
G1A01 (C) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
160-meter band?
A. 1800 - 1900 kHz
B. 1900 - 2000 kHz
C. 1800 - 2000 kHz
D. 1825 - 2000 kHz
G1A02 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
A. 3525 - 3750 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz
B. 3525 - 3775 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz
C. 3525 - 3750 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz
D. 3525 - 3775 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz
G1A03 (D) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
40-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
A. 7025 - 7175 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz
B. 7025 - 7175 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz
C. 7025 - 7150 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz
D. 7025 - 7150 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz
G1A04 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
30-meter band?
A. 10100 - 10150 kHz
B. 10100 - 10175 kHz
C. 10125 - 10150 kHz
D. 10125 - 10175 kHz
G1A05 (B) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
20-meter band?
A. 14025 - 14100 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz
B. 14025 - 14150 kHz and 14225 - 14350 kHz
C. 14025 - 14125 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz
D. 14025 - 14175 kHz and 14250 - 14350 kHz
G1A06 (D) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
15-meter band?
A. 21025 - 21200 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz
B. 21025 - 21150 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz
C. 21025 - 21150 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz
D. 21025 - 21200 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz
G1A07 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
12-meter band?
A. 24890 - 24990 kHz
B. 24890 - 24975 kHz
C. 24900 - 24990 kHz
D. 24900 - 24975 kHz
G1A08 (A) [97.301d]
What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
10-meter band?
A. 28000 - 29700 kHz
B. 28025 - 29700 kHz
C. 28100 - 29600 kHz
D. 28125 - 29600 kHz
G1A09 (A) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 160-meter band for phone
emissions?
A. 1800 - 2000 kHz
B. 1800 - 1900 kHz
C. 1825 - 2000 kHz
D. 1825 - 1900 kHz
G1A10 (C) [97.305a]
What are the frequency limits within the 80-meter band in ITU
Region 2 for CW emissions?
A. 3500 - 3750 kHz
B. 3700 - 3750 kHz
C. 3500 - 4000 kHz
D. 3890 - 4000 kHz
G1A11 (D) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 40-meter band in ITU
Region 2 for image emissions?
A. 7225 - 7300 kHz
B. 7000 - 7150 kHz
C. 7100 - 7150 kHz
D. 7150 - 7300 kHz
G1A12 (C) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 30-meter band for RTTY
emissions?
A. 10125 - 10150 kHz
B. 10125 - 10140 kHz
C. 10100 - 10150 kHz
D. 10100 - 10140 kHz
G1A13 (B) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 20-meter band for image
emissions?
A. 14025 - 14300 kHz
B. 14150 - 14350 kHz
C. 14025 - 14350 kHz
D. 14150 - 14300 kHz
G1A14 (C) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 15-meter band for image
emissions?
A. 21250 - 21300 kHz
B. 21150 - 21450 kHz
C. 21200 - 21450 kHz
D. 21100 - 21300 kHz
G1A15 (C) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 12-meter band for phone
emissions?
A. 24890 - 24990 kHz
B. 24890 - 24930 kHz
C. 24930 - 24990 kHz
D. Phone emissions are not permitted in this band
G1A16 (C) [97.305c]
What are the frequency limits within the 10-meter band for phone
emissions?
A. 28000 - 28300 kHz
B. 29000 - 29700 kHz
C. 28300 - 29700 kHz
D. 28000 - 29000 kHz
G1A17 (B) [97.119d]
As a General class control operator at a Novice station, how must
you identify your station when transmitting on 7250 kHz?
A. With your call sign, followed by the word "controlling" and
the Novice call sign
B. With the Novice call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or
any suitable word) and your own call sign
C. With your call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any
suitable word) and the Novice call sign
D. A Novice station should not be operated on 7250 kHz, even
with a General control operator
G1A18 (D) [97.205a]
Under what circumstances may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the
2-meter signal from a Technician class operator?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special
Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications
emergency
D. Only if the 10-meter control operator holds at least a
General class license
G1A19 (A) [97.3a35]
What kind of amateur station automatically retransmits the
signals of other stations?
A. Repeater station
B. Space station
C. Telecommand station
D. Relay station
G1A20 (B) [97.3a21]
What name is given to a form of interference that seriously
degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication
service?
A. Intentional interference
B. Harmful interference
C. Adjacent interference
D. Disruptive interference
G1A21 (C) [97.115, 97.117]
What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station
to a foreign country for a third party?
A. Messages for which the amateur operator is paid
B. Messages facilitating the business affairs of any party
C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal
character
D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third
parties
G1B Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good
amateur practice; beacon operation; restricted operation;
retransmitting radio signals
G1B01 (C) [97.15a]
Up to what height above the ground may you install an antenna
structure without needing FCC approval?
A. 50 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 200 feet
D. 300 feet
G1B02 (B) [97.101a]
If the FCC Rules DO NOT specifically cover a situation, how must
you operate your amateur station?
A. In accordance with general licensee operator principles
B. In accordance with good engineering and good amateur practice
C. In accordance with practices adopted by the Institute of
Electrical and Electronics Engineers
D. In accordance with procedures set forth by the International
Amateur Radio Union
G1B03 (B) [97.203g]
Which type of station may transmit one-way communications?
A. Repeater station
B. Beacon station
C. HF station
D. VHF station
G1B04 (A) [97.113c]
Which of the following does NOT need to be true if an amateur
station gathers news information for broadcast purposes?
A. The information is more quickly transmitted by amateur radio
B. The information must involve the immediate safety of life of
individuals or the immediate protection of property
C. The information must be directly related to the event
D. The information cannot be transmitted by other means
G1B05 (D) [97.113e]
Under what limited circumstances may music be transmitted by an
amateur station?
A. When it produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
D. When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle
retransmission
G1B06 (C) [97.113d]
When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit a
message in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning of the
communication?
A. When transmitting above 450 MHz
B. During contests
C. Never
D. During a declared communications emergency
G1B07 (B) [97.113d]
What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or
procedural signals in the amateur service?
A. There are no restrictions
B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a
message
C. They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a
message to FCC monitoring stations
D. Only "10-codes" are permitted
G1B08 (A) [97.113d]
When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way domestic amateur
communications?
A. Never
B. During contests
C. During nationally declared emergencies
D. On frequencies above 2.3 GHz
G1B09 (A) [97.113d]
When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way international
amateur communications?
A. Never
B. During contests
C. During internationally declared emergencies
D. On frequencies above 2.3 GHz
G1B10 (D) [97.113d]
Which of the following amateur transmissions is NOT prohibited by
the FCC Rules?
A. The playing of music
B. The use of obscene or indecent words
C. False or deceptive messages or signals
D. Retransmission of space shuttle communications
G1B11 (C) [97.113d/e]
What should you do to keep your station from retransmitting music
or signals from a non-amateur station?
A. Turn up the volume of your transceiver
B. Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal
strength
C. Turn down the volume of background audio
D. Adjust your transceiver noise blanker
G1C Transmitter power standards; type acceptance of external
RF-power amplifiers; standards for type acceptance of external
RF-power amplifiers; HF data emission standards
G1C01 (A) [97.313c1]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 3690 kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C02 (C) [97.313b]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 7080 kHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C03 (A) [97.313c1]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 10.140 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C04 (A) [97.313c1]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 21.150 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C05 (C) [97.313b]
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
on 24.950 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output
G1C06 (D) [97.315a]
External RF power amplifiers designed to operate below what
frequency may require FCC type acceptance?
A. 28 MHz
B. 35 MHz
C. 50 MHz
D. 144 MHz
G1C07 (B) [97.315a]
Without a grant of FCC type acceptance, how many external RF
amplifiers of a given design capable of operation below 144 MHz
may you build or modify in one calendar year?
A. None
B. 1
C. 5
D. 10
G1C08 (B) [97.317c6i]
Which of the following standards must be met if FCC type
acceptance of an external RF amplifier is required?
A. The amplifier must not be able to amplify a 28-MHz signal to
more than ten times the input power
B. The amplifier must not be capable of reaching its designed
output power when driven with less than 50 watts
C. The amplifier must not be able to be operated for more than
ten minutes without a time delay circuit
D. The amplifier must not be able to be modified by an amateur
operator
G1C09 (D) [97.317b/c]
Which of the following would NOT disqualify an external RF power
amplifier from being granted FCC type acceptance?
A. The capability of being modified by the operator for use
outside the amateur bands
B. The capability of achieving full output power when driven
with less than 50 watts
C. The capability of achieving full output power on amateur
frequencies between 24 and 35 MHz
D. The capability of being switched by the operator to all
amateur frequencies below 24 MHz
G1C10 (A) [97.307f3]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emissions
below 28 MHz?
A. 300 bauds
B. 1200 bauds
C. 19.6 kilobauds
D. 56 kilobauds
G1C11 (D) [97.307f3]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions
below 28 MHz?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
G1D Examination element preparation; examination
administration; temporary station identification
G1D01 (B) [97.507a2]
What telegraphy examination elements may you prepare if you hold
a General class license?
A. None
B. Element 1A only
C. Element 1B only
D. Elements 1A and 1B
G1D02 (C) [97.507a2&3]
What written examination elements may you prepare if you hold a
General class license?
A. None
B. Element 2 only
C. Elements 2 and 3A
D. Elements 2, 3A and 3B
G1D03 (C) [97.511b1]
What license examinations may you administer if you hold a
General class license?
A. None
B. Novice only
C. Novice and Technician
D. Novice, Technician and General
G1D04 (B) [97.501e]
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a
Novice license?
A. Element 2 only
B. Elements 1A and 2
C. Elements 2 and 3A
D. Elements 1A, 2 and 3A
G1D05 (C) [97.501d]
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a
Technician license?
A. Element 2 only
B. Elements 1A and 2
C. Elements 2 and 3A
D. Elements 1A, 2 and 3A
G1D06 (D) [97.301e/501d]
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a
Technician license with HF privileges?
A. Element 2 only
B. Elements 1A and 2
C. Elements 2 and 3A
D. Elements 1A, 2 and 3A
G1D07 (A) [97.511a/b]
What are the requirements for administering Novice examinations?
A. Three VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be
present
B. Two VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be
present
C. Two General class or higher VEs must be present, but only one
need be VEC accredited
D. Any two General class or higher VEs must be present
G1D08 (D) [97.507a]
When may you participate as an administering Volunteer Examiner
(VE) for a Novice license examination?
A. Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an
examination
B. Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination (CSCE) for General class
C. Once you have prepared telegraphy and written examinations
for the Novice license, or obtained them from a qualified
supplier
D. Once you have received both your FCC-issued General class or
higher license in the mail and VEC accreditation
G1D09 (B) [97.119e2]
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do
you identify your station when transmitting on 14.035 MHz?
A. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
examination where you obtained the CSCE
B. You must give your call sign, followed by the slant mark "/",
followed by the identifier "AG"
C. You may not operate on 14.035 MHz until your new license
arrives
D. No special form of identification is needed
G1D10 (C) [97.119e2]
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do
you identify your station when transmitting phone emissions on
14.325 MHz?
A. No special form of identification is needed
B. You may not operate on 14.325 MHz until your new license
arrives
C. You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word
that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "AG"
D. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
examination where you obtained the CSCE
G1D11 (A) [97.119e2]
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, when
must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign?
A. Whenever you operate using your new frequency privileges
B. Whenever you operate
C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General
class license application has been filed with the FCC
SUBELEMENT G2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [3 exam questions - 3
groups]
G2A Phone, RTTY, repeater, VOX and full break-in CW
G2A01 (A)
Which sideband is commonly used for 20-meter phone operation?
A. Upper
B. Lower
C. Amplitude compandored
D. Double
G2A02 (B)
Which sideband is commonly used on 3925-kHz for phone operation?
A. Upper
B. Lower
C. Amplitude compandored
D. Double
G2A03 (A)
In what segment of the 80-meter band do most RTTY transmissions
take place?
A. 3610 - 3630 kHz
B. 3500 - 3525 kHz
C. 3700 - 3750 kHz
D. 3775 - 3825 kHz
G2A04 (B)
In what segment of the 20-meter band do most RTTY transmissions
take place?
A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B. 14.075 - 14.100 MHz
C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz
G2A05 (C)
What is the Baudot code?
A. A 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits
B. A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three
space bits
C. A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
D. A 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
G2A06 (A)
What is ASCII?
A. A 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
B. A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three
space bits
C. A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
D. A 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and two
space bits
G2A07 (B)
What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the
amateur HF bands?
A. 85 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 425 Hz
D. 850 Hz
G2A08 (B)
What are the two major AMTOR operating modes?
A. Mode AM and Mode TR
B. Mode A (ARQ) and Mode B (FEC)
C. Mode C (CRQ) and Mode D (DEC)
D. Mode SELCAL and Mode LISTEN
G2A09 (A)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a
10-meter station in repeater operation?
A. 100 kHz
B. 600 kHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 170 Hz
G2A10 (B)
What is the circuit called which causes a transmitter to
automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its
microphone?
A. VXO
B. VOX
C. VCO
D. VFO
G2A11 (D)
Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy?
A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand
keys
C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before
and after every transmission
D. Incoming signals are received between transmitted key pulses
G2B Operating courtesy, antenna orientation and HF operations,
including logging practices; ITU Regions
G2B01 (D)
If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should
you do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just
before the net begins?
A. Reduce your output power and start the net as usual
B. Increase your power output so that net participants will be
able to hear you over the existing activity
C. Cancel the net for that day
D. Conduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 kHz away from the
regular net frequency
G2B02 (A)
If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another
station are using, what should you do?
A. As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency
B. Increase your power output to ensure that all net
participants can hear you
C. Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no
other stations may use it
D. Turn off your radio
G2B03 (D)
If propagation changes during your contact and you notice
increasing interference from other activity on the same
frequency, what should you do?
A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you
were there first
B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary
Coordinator
C. Turn on your amplifier to overcome the interference
D. Move your contact to another frequency
G2B04 (B)
When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum
frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow
to minimize interference?
A. 5 to 50 Hz
B. 150 to 500 Hz
C. 1 to 3 kHz
D. 3 to 6 kHz
G2B05 (B)
When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency,
what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress
should you allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize
interference?
A. 150 to 500 Hz
B. Approximately 3 kHz
C. Approximately 6 kHz
D. Approximately 10 kHz
G2B06 (B)
When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum
frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow
(center to center) to minimize interference?
A. 60 Hz
B. 250 to 500 Hz
C. Approximately 3 kHz
D. Approximately 6 kHz
G2B07 (B)
What is an azimuthal map?
A. A map projection centered on the North Pole
B. A map projection centered on a particular location, used to
determine the shortest path between points on the surface of the
earth
C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite
crosses the equator
D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an
amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with
each orbit
G2B08 (A)
What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a
directional HF antenna toward a distant station?
A. Azimuthal
B. Mercator
C. Polar projection
D. Topographical
G2B09 (C)
A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to
another station is generally oriented how many degrees from its
short-path heading?
A. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 270 degrees
G2B10 (A)
What is a band plan?
A. A guideline for using different operating modes within an
amateur band
B. A guideline for deviating from FCC amateur frequency band
allocations
C. A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band
published by the FCC
D. A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during
a contest
G2B11 (B)
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the
continental United States?
A. Region 1
B. Region 2
C. Region 3
D. Region 4
G2C Emergencies, including drills, communications and amateur
auxiliary to FOB
G2C01 (C)
What means may an amateur station in distress use to attract
attention, make known its condition and location, and obtain
assistance?
A. Only Morse code signals sent on internationally recognized
emergency channels
B. Any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally
recognized emergency channels
C. Any means of radiocommunication
D. Only those means of radiocommunication for which the station
is licensed
G2C02 (A)
During a disaster in the US, when may an amateur station make
transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and
assist relief operations?
A. When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or
disrupted
B. Only when the local RACES net is activated
C. Never; only official emergency stations may transmit in a
disaster
D. When normal communication systems are working but are not
convenient
G2C03 (A)
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in your area, what
may the FCC do?
A. Declare a temporary state of communication emergency
B. Temporarily seize your equipment for use in disaster
communications
C. Order all stations across the country to stop transmitting at
once
D. Nothing until the President declares the area a disaster area
G2C04 (D)
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in an area, what
would the FCC include in any notice of a temporary state of
communication emergency?
A. Any additional test questions needed for the licensing of
amateur emergency communications workers
B. A list of organizations authorized to temporarily seize your
equipment for disaster communications
C. Any special conditions requiring the use of non-commercial
power systems
D. Any special conditions and special rules to be observed by
stations during the emergency
G2C05 (D)
During an emergency, what power output limitations must be
observed by a station in distress?
A. 200 watts PEP
B. 1500 watts PEP
C. 1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts
PEP during the night
D. There are no limitations during an emergency
G2C06 (C)
During a disaster in the US, what frequencies may be used to
obtain assistance?
A. Only frequencies in the 80-meter band
B. Only frequencies in the 40-meter band
C. Any frequency
D. Any United Nations approved frequency
G2C07 (B)
If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a
station in distress break in, what should you do?
A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency
first
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its
location and what assistance may be needed
C. Change to a different frequency so the station in distress
may have a clear channel to call for assistance
D. Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in
distress have emergency rights to the frequency
G2C08 (A)
Why do stations in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
(RACES) participate in training tests and drills?
A. To practice orderly and efficient operations for the civil
defense organization they serve
B. To ensure that members attend monthly on-the-air meetings
C. To ensure that RACES members are able to conduct tests and
drills
D. To acquaint members of RACES with other members they may meet
in an emergency
G2C09 (C)
What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in
a foreign country?
A. Messages of any type
B. Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in
nature
C. Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of
relative unimportance
D. Messages of any type, but only if the foreign country has a
third-party communications agreement with the US
G2C10 (A)
What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations
Bureau?
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the
airwaves for rules violations
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for
amateur VHF repeaters
D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help
civil defense organizations in times of emergency
G2C11 (B)
What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's
Field Operations Bureau?
A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing
examinations
B. To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the
rules
C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum
usage
D. To provide emergency and public safety communications
SUBELEMENT G3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 exam questions - 3
groups]
G3A Ionospheric disturbances; sunspots and solar radiation
G3A01 (A)
What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications
during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
A. Try a higher frequency
B. Try the other sideband
C. Try a different antenna polarization
D. Try a different frequency shift
G3A02 (B)
What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the
daylight ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
A. It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude
paths
B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on
higher frequencies
C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct
communications
D. None, only areas on the night side of the earth are affected
G3A03 (C)
How long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray
radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on
the earth?
A. The effect is instantaneous
B. 1.5 seconds
C. 8 minutes
D. 20 to 40 hours
G3A04 (B)
What is solar flux?
A. The density of the sun's magnetic field
B. The radio energy emitted by the sun
C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the
earth
D. A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side
toward the sun
G3A05 (D)
What is the solar-flux index?
A. A measure of solar activity that is taken annually
B. A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with
results from the last six months
C. Another name for the American sunspot number
D. A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific
frequency
G3A06 (D)
What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
B. A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole
C. Ripples in the ionosphere
D. A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short
period of time
G3A07 (A)
At which latitudes are propagation paths more sensitive to
geomagnetic disturbances?
A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude
B. Those between 5 and 45 degrees latitude
C. Those near the equator
D. All paths are affected equally
G3A08 (B)
What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on radio-wave
propagation?
A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation
B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
C. Improved ground-wave propagation
D. Improved chances of UHF ducting
G3A09 (A)
What influences all radio communication beyond ground-wave or
line-of-sight ranges?
A. Solar activity
B. Lunar tidal effects
C. The F1 region of the ionosphere
D. The F2 region of the ionosphere
G3A10 (B)
Which two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation?
A. Subaudible- and audio-frequency emissions
B. Electromagnetic and particle emissions
C. Polar-region and equatorial emissions
D. Infrared and gamma-ray emissions
G3A11 (C)
When sunspot numbers are high, how is the ionosphere affected?
A. High-frequency radio signals are absorbed
B. Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for
long-distance communication
C. Frequencies up to 40 MHz or higher are normally usable for
long-distance communication
D. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
G3B Maximum usable frequency, propagation "hops"
G3B01 (B)
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to
France is 22 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a
successful contact?
A. 10 meters
B. 15 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 40 Meters
G3B02 (C)
If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to Germany
is 17 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a
successful contact?
A. 80 meters
B. 40 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 2 meters
G3B03 (C)
If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high and HF radio-wave
propagation is generally good for several days, a similar
condition can usually be expected how many days later?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 28
D. 90
G3B04 (A)
What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency
(MUF) is high enough to support 28-MHz propagation between your
station and western Europe?
A. Listen for signals on the 10-meter beacon frequency
B. Listen for signals on the 20-meter beacon frequency
C. Listen for signals on the 39-meter broadcast frequency
D. Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz
G3B05 (A)
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the
maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the
ionosphere?
A. They are bent back to the earth
B. They pass through the ionosphere
C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
D. They are changed to a frequency above the MUF
G3B06 (C)
Where would you tune to hear beacons that would help you
determine propagation conditions on the 20-meter band?
A. 28.2 MHz
B. 21.1 MHz
C. 14.1 MHz
D. 14.2 MHz
G3B07 (D)
During periods of low solar activity, which frequencies are the
least reliable for long-distance communication?
A. Frequencies below 3.5 MHz
B. Frequencies near 3.5 MHz
C. Frequencies on or above 10 MHz
D. Frequencies above 20 MHz
G3B08 (D)
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually
support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
A. At the summer solstice
B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D. At any point in the solar cycle
G3B09 (A)
What is one characteristic of gray-line propagation?
A. It is very efficient
B. It improves local communications
C. It is very poor
D. It increases D-region absorption
G3B10 (C)
What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is
normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
A. 180 miles
B. 1200 miles
C. 2500 miles
D. None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation
G3B11 (B)
What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is
normally covered in one hop using the E region?
A. 180 miles
B. 1200 miles
C. 2500 miles
D. None; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation
G3C Height of ionospheric regions, critical angle and frequency,
HF scatter
G3C01 (B)
What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E region?
A. 45 miles
B. 70 miles
C. 200 miles
D. 1200 miles
G3C02 (A)
When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at
your location?
A. At noon during the summer
B. At midnight during the summer
C. At dusk in the spring and fall
D. At noon during the winter
G3C03 (C)
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest-distance
radio-wave propagation?
A. Because it exists only at night
B. Because it is the lowest ionospheric region
C. Because it is the highest ionospheric region
D. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other
ionospheric regions
G3C04 (D)
What is the "critical angle" as used in radio-wave propagation?
A. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the
earth under specific ionospheric conditions
B. The compass direction of a distant station
C. The compass direction opposite that of a distant station
D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to
the earth under specific ionospheric conditions
G3C05 (C)
What is the main reason the 160-, 80- and 40-meter amateur bands
tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during
daylight hours?
A. Because of a lack of activity
B. Because of auroral propagation
C. Because of D-region absorption
D. Because of magnetic flux
G3C06 (B)
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A. High intelligibility
B. A wavering sound
C. Reversed modulation
D. Reversed sidebands
G3C07 (D)
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
A. Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field
B. Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the
signal
C. The state of the E-region at the point of refraction
D. Energy scattered into the skip zone through several
radio-wave paths
G3C08 (A)
Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?
A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the
skip zone
B. Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy
C. Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal
energy
D. The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal
energy
G3C09 (B)
What type of radio-wave propagation allows a signal to be
detected at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but
too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
A. Ground wave
B. Scatter
C. Sporadic-E skip
D. Short-path skip
G3C10 (D)
When does scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur?
A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region
absorption is high
B. At night
C. When the F1 and F2 regions are combined
D. When communicating on frequencies above the maximum usable
frequency (MUF)
G3C11 (A)
What type of signal fading occurs when two or more parts of a
radio wave follow different paths?
A. Multipath interference
B. Multimode interference
C. Selective Interference
D. Ionospheric interference
SUBELEMENT G4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 exam questions - 5
groups]
G4A Two-tone test; electronic TR switch, amplifier
neutralization
G4A01 (C)
What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity
of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output
on an oscilloscope?
A. Normal speech
B. An audio-frequency sine wave
C. Two audio-frequency sine waves
D. An audio-frequency square wave
G4A02 (C)
When testing the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband
transmitter, what kind of audio tones are fed into the microphone
input and on what kind of instrument is the output observed?
A. Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is
observed on an oscilloscope
B. Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is
observed on a distortion analyzer
C. Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output
is observed on an oscilloscope
D. Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output
is observed on a distortion analyzer
G4A03 (D)
What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the
linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. 20 Hz and 20 kHz tones must be used
B. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used
C. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the
transmitter audio passband, and must be harmonically related
D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the
transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically
related
G4A04 (D)
What measurement can be made of a single-sideband phone
transmitter's amplifier by performing a two-tone test using an
oscilloscope?
A. Its percent of frequency modulation
B. Its percent of carrier phase shift
C. Its frequency deviation
D. Its linearity
G4A05 (A)
At what point in an HF transceiver block diagram would an
electronic TR switch normally appear?
A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter
B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna
C. At the antenna feed point
D. At the power-supply feed point
G4A06 (C)
Why is an electronic TR switch preferable to a mechanical one?
A. It allows greater receiver sensitivity
B. Its circuitry is simpler
C. It has a higher operating speed
D. It allows cleaner output signals
G4A07 (A)
As a power amplifier is tuned, what reading on its grid-current
meter indicates the best neutralization?
A. A minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is
changed
B. A maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is
changed
C. Minimum grid current
D. Maximum grid current
G4A08 (D)
Why is neutralization necessary for some vacuum-tube amplifiers?
A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q
B. To reduce grid-to-cathode leakage
C. To cancel AC hum from the filament transformer
D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode
capacitance
G4A09 (C)
In a properly neutralized RF amplifier, what type of feedback is
used?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. Negative
D. Positive
G4A10 (B)
What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?
A. It controls differential gain
B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback
C. It eliminates AC hum from the power supply
D. It reduces incidental grid modulation
G4A11 (B)
What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of
a transmitter?
A. To limit the modulation index
B. To eliminate self oscillations
C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D. To keep the carrier on frequency
G4B Test equipment: oscilloscope; signal tracer; antenna noise
bridge; monitoring oscilloscope; field-strength meters
G4B01 (D)
What item of test equipment contains horizontal- and
vertical-channel amplifiers?
A. An ohmmeter
B. A signal generator
C. An ammeter
D. An oscilloscope
G4B02 (D)
How would a signal tracer normally be used?
A. To identify the source of radio transmissions
B. To make exact drawings of signal waveforms
C. To show standing wave patterns on open-wire feed lines
D. To identify an inoperative stage in a receiver
G4B03 (B)
Why would you use an antenna noise bridge?
A. To measure the noise figure of an antenna or other electrical
circuit
B. To measure the impedance of an antenna or other electrical
circuit
C. To cancel electrical noise picked up by an antenna
D. To tune out noise in a receiver
G4B04 (C)
How is an antenna noise bridge normally used?
A. It is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads the
antenna's noise figure
B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and is
tuned for minimum SWR
C. It is connected between a receiver and an unknown impedance
and is tuned for minimum noise
D. It is connected between an antenna and ground and is tuned
for minimum SWR
G4B05 (A)
What is the best instrument to use to check the signal quality of
a CW or single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. A monitoring oscilloscope
B. A field-strength meter
C. A sidetone monitor
D. A signal tracer and an audio amplifier
G4B06 (D)
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a
monitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a
transmitted signal?
A. The IF output of a monitoring receiver
B. The audio input of the transmitter
C. The RF signals of a nearby receiving antenna
D. The RF output of the transmitter
G4B07 (A)
What instrument can be used to determine the horizontal radiation
pattern of an antenna?
A. A field-strength meter
B. A grid-dip meter
C. An oscilloscope
D. A signal tracer and an audio amplifier
G4B08 (C)
How is a field-strength meter normally used?
A. To determine the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line
B. To check the output modulation of a transmitter
C. To monitor relative RF output
D. To increase average transmitter output
G4B09 (A)
What simple instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output
during antenna and transmitter adjustments?
A. A field-strength meter
B. An antenna noise bridge
C. A multimeter
D. A metronome
G4B10 (B)
If the power output of a transmitter is increased by four times,
how might a nearby receiver's S-meter reading change?
A. Decrease by approximately one S unit
B. Increase by approximately one S unit
C. Increase by approximately four S units
D. Decrease by approximately four S units
G4B11 (C)
By how many times must the power output of a transmitter be
increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from
S8 to S9?
A. Approximately 2 times
B. Approximately 3 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 5 times
G4C Audio rectification in consumer electronics, RF ground
G4C01 (B)
What devices would you install to reduce or eliminate
audio-frequency interference to home-entertainment systems?
A. Bypass inductors
B. Bypass capacitors
C. Metal-oxide varistors
D. Bypass resistors
G4C02 (B)
What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is
the cause of interference to a nearby telephone?
A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment
B. Ask the telephone company to install RFI filters
C. Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use
D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier
G4C03 (C)
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio
rectification of a nearby single-sideband phone transmission
occurs?
A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals
G4C04 (A)
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio
rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs?
A. On-and-off humming or clicking
B. Audible, possibly distorted speech
C. Muffled, severely distorted speech
D. A steady whistling
G4C05 (C)
How can you minimize the possibility of audio rectification of
your transmitter's signals?
A. By using a solid-state transmitter
B. By using CW emission only
C. By ensuring that all station equipment is properly grounded
D. By installing bypass capacitors on all power supply
rectifiers
G4C06 (D)
If your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire running 33
feet down to a ground rod, why might you get an RF burn if you
touch the front panel of your HF transceiver?
A. Because the ground rod is not making good contact with moist
earth
B. Because the transceiver's heat-sensing circuit is not working
to start the cooling fan
C. Because of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF energy
to take an easier path out of the transceiver through you
D. Because the ground wire is a resonant length on several HF
bands and acts more like an antenna than an RF ground connection
G4C07 (A)
What is NOT an important reason to have a good station ground?
A. To reduce the cost of operating a station
B. To reduce electrical noise
C. To reduce interference
D. To reduce the possibility of electric shock
G4C08 (A)
What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your amateur
station?
A. Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible
B. Use a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity
C. Drive the ground rod at least 14 feet into the ground
D. Make a couple of loops in the ground wire where it connects
to your station
G4C09 (B)
Which statement about station grounding is NOT true?
A. Braid from RG-213 coaxial cable makes a good conductor to tie
station equipment together into a station ground
B. Only transceivers and power amplifiers need to be tied into a
station ground
C. According to the National Electrical Code, there should be
only one grounding system in a building
D. The minimum length for a good ground rod is 8 feet
G4C10 (C)
Which statement about station grounding is true?
A. The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied
together with high-impedance conductors
B. If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a
good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground
C. RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground
floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire
D. A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment
G4C11 (D)
Which of the following is NOT covered in the National Electrical
Code?
A. Minimum conductor sizes for different lengths of amateur
antennas
B. The size and composition of grounding conductors
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack
D. The RF exposure limits of the human body
G4D Speech processors; PEP calculations; wire sizes and fuses
G4D01 (D)
What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor
with a single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. It reduces average transmitter power requirements
B. It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone
C. It improves voice frequency fidelity
D. It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver
G4D02 (B)
If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what
will a speech processor do to the transmitter's power?
A. It will increase the output PEP
B. It will add nothing to the output PEP
C. It will decrease the peak power output
D. It will decrease the average power output
G4D03 (B)
How is the output PEP of a transmitter calculated if an
oscilloscope is used to measure the transmitter's peak load
voltage across a resistive load?
A. PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)] / (RL)
B. PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)] / RL
C. PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL)
D. PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)] / RL
G4D04 (A)
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope
measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor
connected to the transmitter output?
A. 100 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 1000 watts
G4D05 (B)
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope
measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor
connected to the transmitter output?
A. 500 watts
B. 625 watts
C. 1250 watts
D. 2500 watts
G4D06 (B)
What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier transmitter if
an average-reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output
indicates 1060 watts?
A. 530 watts
B. 1060 watts
C. 1500 watts
D. 2120 watts
G4D07 (A)
Which wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to
fuses in a 240-VAC primary (single phase) power supply?
A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires
B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire
C. Only the ground (bare) wire
D. All wires
G4D08 (A)
What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 120-VAC household
lighting circuit?
A. AWG number 14
B. AWG number 16
C. AWG number 18
D. AWG number 22
G4D09 (D)
What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 120-VAC household
appliance circuit?
A. AWG number 20
B. AWG number 16
C. AWG number 14
D. AWG number 12
G4D10 (D)
What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a
household appliance circuit using AWG number 12 wiring?
A. 100 amperes
B. 60 amperes
C. 30 amperes
D. 20 amperes
G4D11 (A)
What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a
household appliance circuit using AWG number 14 wiring?
A. 15 amperes
B. 20 amperes
C. 30 amperes
D. 60 amperes
G4E RF safety
G4E01 (A)
Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of
the RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect
body tissue?
A. It heats the tissue
B. It causes radiation poisoning
C. It causes blood flow to stop
D. It produces genetic changes in the tissue
G4E02 (C)
If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what
precautions should you take when you install them?
A. Locate the antennas close to your operating position to
minimize feed-line length
B. Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets
the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation
C. Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living
spaces that will be occupied while you are operating
D. Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to
take advantage of parasitic effects
G4E03 (A)
What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments to
the feed system of a parabolic dish antenna?
A. Be sure no one can activate the transmitter
B. Disconnect the antenna-positioning mechanism
C. Point the dish away from the sun so it doesn't concentrate
solar energy on you
D. Be sure you and the antenna structure are properly grounded
G4E04 (B)
What is one important thing to consider when using an indoor
antenna?
A. Use stranded wire to reduce stray RF
B. Ensure that the antenna is as far away from people as
possible
C. Use only a Yagi antenna to direct the signals away from
people
D. Use as much power as possible to ensure that your signal gets
out
G4E05 (A)
Why should a protective fence be placed around the base of a
ground-mounted parabolic dish transmitting antenna?
A. To reduce the possibility of persons being harmed by RF
energy during transmissions
B. To reduce the possibility that animals will damage the
antenna
C. To increase the property value through increased security
awareness
D. To protect the antenna from lightning damage and provide a
good ground system for the installation
G4E06 (B)
What RF-safety precautions should you take before beginning
repairs on an antenna?
A. Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded
B. Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed
line
C. Inform your neighbors so they are aware of your intentions
D. Turn off the main power switch in your house
G4E07 (D)
What precaution should you take when installing a ground-mounted
antenna?
A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B. It should not be installed in a wet area
C. It should be painted so people or animals do not accidentally
run into it
D. It should be installed so no one can come in contact with it
G4E08 (B)
What precautions should you take before beginning repairs on a
microwave feed horn or waveguide?
A. Be sure to wear tight-fitting clothes and gloves to protect
your body and hands from sharp edges
B. Be sure the transmitter is turned off and the power source is
disconnected
C. Be sure the weather is dry and sunny
D. Be sure propagation conditions are unfavorable for
tropospheric ducting
G4E09 (D)
Why should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher than
nearby structures?
A. So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm
B. So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy
C. So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves
D. So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby
structures
G4E10 (C)
For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole
antenna be located?
A. Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away
from the ground
B. As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be
concentrated near the transmitter
C. As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact
with the antenna
D. Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made
without climbing a ladder
G4E11 (B)
Which property of RF energy is NOT important in estimating the
energy's effect on body tissue?
A. The polarization
B. The critical angle
C. The power density
D. The frequency
SUBELEMENT G5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [2 exam questions - 2
groups]
G5A Impedance, including matching; resistance, including ohm;
reactance, inductance, capacitance and metric divisions of these
values
G5A01 (C)
What is impedance?
A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
B. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only
capacitance
C. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
D. The force of repulsion between one electric field and another
with the same charge
G5A02 (B)
What is reactance?
A. Opposition to DC caused by resistors
B. Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is
de-energized
G5A03 (D)
In an inductor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?
A. Resistance
B. Reluctance
C. Admittance
D. Reactance
G5A04 (C)
In a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?
A. Resistance
B. Reluctance
C. Reactance
D. Admittance
G5A05 (D)
How does a coil react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
increases
G5A06 (A)
How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
decreases
G5A07 (A)
When will a power source deliver maximum output to the load?
A. When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of
the source
B. When the load resistance is infinite
C. When the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding
current
D. When air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core
transformers
G5A08 (D)
What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to
the internal impedance of the power source?
A. The source delivers minimum power to the load
B. The electrical load is shorted
C. No current can flow through the circuit
D. The source delivers maximum power to the load
G5A09 (A)
Why is impedance matching important?
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the
circuit
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit
are equal
G5A10 (B)
What unit is used to measure reactance?
A. Mho
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Siemens
G5A11 (B)
What unit is used to measure impedance?
A. Volt
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Watt
G5B Decibel, Ohm's Law, current and voltage dividers, electrical
power calculations and series and parallel components,
transformers (either voltage or impedance), sine wave
root-mean-square (RMS) value
G5B01 (B)
A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?
A. 1 dB higher
B. 3 dB higher
C. 6 dB higher
D. 12 dB higher
G5B02 (B)
How can you decrease your transmitter's power by 3 dB?
A. Divide the original power by 1.5
B. Divide the original power by 2
C. Divide the original power by 3
D. Divide the original power by 4
G5B03 (D)
How can you increase your transmitter's power by 6 dB?
A. Multiply the original power by 1.5
B. Multiply the original power by 2
C. Multiply the original power by 3
D. Multiply the original power by 4
G5B04 (C)
If a signal-strength report is "10 dB over S9", what should the
report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to
150 watts?
A. S5
B. S7
C. S9
D. S9 plus 5 dB
G5B05 (C)
If a signal-strength report is "20 dB over S9", what should the
report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to
15 watts?
A. S5
B. S7
C. S9
D. S9 plus 10 dB
G5B06 (D)
If a 1.0-ampere current source is connected to two
parallel-connected 10-ohm resistors, how much current passes
through each resistor?
A. 10 amperes
B. 2 amperes
C. 1 ampere
D. 0.5 ampere
G5B07 (B)
In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch
resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the
branch resistors?
A. It equals the average of the branch current through each
resistor
B. It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor
C. It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the
circuit
D. It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by
the total number of resistors
G5B08 (B)
How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is
supplied to an 800-ohm load?
A. 0.5 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 320,000 watts
G5B09 (D)
How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light
bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
A. 60 watts
B. 24 watts
C. 6 watts
D. 2.4 watts
G5B10 (A)
How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0 milliamperes flow
through 1.25 kilohms?
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
B. Approximately 39 milliwatts
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
D. Approximately 9 milliwatts
G5B11 (C)
What is the voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a
transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
A. 2370 volts
B. 540 volts
C. 26.7 volts
D. 5.9 volts
G5B12 (A)
What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio
amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a
4-ohm impedance?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C. 150 to 1
D. 300 to 1
G5B13 (D)
What is the impedance of a speaker that requires a transformer
with a turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio amplifier having
an output impedance of 2000 ohms?
A. 576 ohms
B. 83.3 ohms
C. 7.0 ohms
D. 3.5 ohms
G5B14 (B)
A DC voltage equal to what value of an applied sine-wave AC
voltage would produce the same amount of heat over time in a
resistive element?
A. The peak-to-peak value
B. The RMS value
C. The average value
D. The peak value
G5B15 (D)
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS
voltage of 120 volts?
A. 84.8 volts
B. 169.7 volts
C. 204.8 volts
D. 339.4 volts
G5B16 (B)
A sine wave of 17 volts peak is equivalent to how many volts RMS?
A. 8.5 volts
B. 12 volts
C. 24 volts
D. 34 volts
SUBELEMENT G6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [1 exam question - 1 group]
G6A Resistors, capacitors, inductors, rectifiers and
transistors, etc.
G6A01 (C)
If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen
to the resistance?
A. It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade
B. It will stay the same
C. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature
coefficient rating
D. It will become time dependent
G6A02 (D)
What type of capacitor is often used in power-supply circuits to
filter the rectified AC?
A. Disc ceramic
B. Vacuum variable
C. Mica
D. Electrolytic
G6A03 (D)
What type of capacitor is used in power-supply circuits to filter
transient voltage spikes across the transformer's secondary
winding?
A. High-value
B. Trimmer
C. Vacuum variable
D. Suppressor
G6A04 (B)
Where is the source of energy connected in a transformer?
A. To the secondary winding
B. To the primary winding
C. To the core
D. To the plates
G6A05 (A)
If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer,
what is current in the primary winding called?
A. Magnetizing current
B. Direct current
C. Excitation current
D. Stabilizing current
G6A06 (C)
What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power-supply
rectifier?
A. The maximum transient voltage the rectifier will handle in
the conducting direction
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency
C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the
non-conducting direction
D. 2.8 times the AC frequency
G6A07 (A)
What are the two major ratings that must not be exceeded for
silicon-diode rectifiers used in power-supply circuits?
A. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
B. Average power; average voltage
C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
D. Peak load impedance; peak voltage
G6A08 (A)
Why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel with
power-supply rectifier diodes?
A. To equalize voltage drops and guard against transient voltage
spikes
B. To ensure that the current through each diode is about the
same
C. To smooth the output waveform
D. To decrease the output voltage
G6A09 (A)
What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier
connected to a resistive load?
A. A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
B. A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
D. A steady DC voltage
G6A10 (B)
A half-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each
cycle?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
G6A11 (D)
A full-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each
cycle?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees
SUBELEMENT G7 - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [1 exam question - 1 group]
G7A Power supplies and filters; single-sideband transmitters and
receivers
G7A01 (B)
What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?
A. It improves voltage regulation
B. It discharges the filter capacitors
C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D. It eliminates ground-loop current
G7A02 (A)
Where is a power-supply bleeder resistor connected?
A. Across the filter capacitor
B. Across the power-supply input
C. Between the transformer primary and secondary windings
D. Across the inductor in the output filter
G7A03 (D)
What components are used in a power-supply filter network?
A. Diodes
B. Transformers and transistors
C. Quartz crystals
D. Capacitors and inductors
G7A04 (D)
What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier
in a full-wave power supply?
A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
G7A05 (D)
What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier
in a half-wave power supply?
A. One-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage of the
power supply
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
D. One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the power
supply
G7A06 (B)
What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to
the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
A. Substantially higher
B. About the same
C. Substantially lower
D. Twice the transmission line impedance
G7A07 (B)
In a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit
processes signals from the balanced modulator and sends signals
to the mixer?
A. Carrier oscillator
B. Filter
C. IF amplifier
D. RF amplifier
G7A08 (D)
In a single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes
signals from the carrier oscillator and the speech amplifier and
sends signals to the filter?
A. Mixer
B. Detector
C. IF amplifier
D. Balanced modulator
G7A09 (C)
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit
processes signals from the RF amplifier and the local oscillator
and sends signals to the IF filter?
A. Balanced modulator
B. IF amplifier
C. Mixer
D. Detector
G7A10 (D)
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit
processes signals from the IF amplifier and the BFO and sends
signals to the AF amplifier?
A. RF oscillator
B. IF filter
C. Balanced modulator
D. Detector
G7A11 (B)
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit
processes signals from the IF filter and sends signals to the
detector?
A. RF oscillator
B. IF amplifier
C. Mixer
D. BFO
SUBELEMENT G8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [2 exam questions - 2
groups]
G8A Signal information, AM, FM, single and double sideband and
carrier, bandwidth, modulation envelope, deviation,
overmodulation
G8A01 (D)
What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF
wave for the purpose of conveying information?
A. Frequency modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude-rectification modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
G8A02 (B)
What type of modulation system changes the phase of an RF wave
for the purpose of conveying information?
A. Pulse modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Phase-rectification modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
G8A03 (D)
What type of modulation system changes the frequency of an RF
wave for the purpose of conveying information?
A. Phase-rectification modulation
B. Frequency-rectification modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Frequency modulation
G8A04 (B)
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to
an RF power amplifier?
A. Multiplex modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Pulse modulation
G8A05 (D)
what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope)
of the RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating audio?
A. Frequency shift keying
B. Pulse modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Amplitude modulation
G8A06 (C)
How much is the carrier suppressed below peak output power in a
single-sideband phone transmission?
A. No more than 20 dB
B. No more than 30 dB
C. At least 40 dB
D. At least 60 dB
G8A07 (C)
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband
phone transmission?
A. Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information
content
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower
distortion
C. More power can be put into the sidebands
D. Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband
suppressed-carrier signal
G8A08 (A)
Which popular phone emission uses the narrowest frequency
bandwidth?
A. Single-sideband
B. Double-sideband
C. Phase-modulated
D. Frequency-modulated
G8A09 (D)
What happens to the signal of an overmodulated single-sideband or
double-sideband phone transmitter?
A. It becomes louder with no other effects
B. It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response
C. It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio
D. It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
G8A10 (B)
How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a
single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks
D. For a dip in plate current
G8A11 (C)
What is meant by flattopping in a single-sideband phone
transmission?
A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly
adjusted
C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
G8B Frequency mixing, multiplication, bandwidths, HF data
communications
G8B01 (A)
What receiver stage combines a 14.25-MHz input signal with a
13.795-MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate
frequency (IF) signal?
A. Mixer
B. BFO
C. VFO
D. Multiplier
G8B02 (B)
If a receiver mixes a 13.800-MHz VFO with a 14.255-MHz received
signal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal,
what type of interference will a 13.345-MHz signal produce in the
receiver?
A. Local oscillator
B. Image response
C. Mixer interference
D. Intermediate interference
G8B03 (A)
What stage in a transmitter would change a 5.3-MHz input signal
to 14.3 MHz?
A. A mixer
B. A beat frequency oscillator
C. A frequency multiplier
D. A linear translator
G8B04 (D)
What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that
selects a harmonic of an HF signal to reach the desired operating
frequency?
A. Mixer
B. Reactance modulator
C. Preemphasis network
D. Multiplier
G8B05 (C)
Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz?
A. The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low
B. Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels
C. The bandwidth would exceed FCC limits
D. The frequency stability would not be adequate
G8B06 (D)
What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a
5-kHz deviation and a 3-kHz modulating frequency?
A. 3 kHz
B. 5 kHz
C. 8 kHz
D. 16 kHz
G8B07 (B)
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz
reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz
FM-phone transmitter?
A. 41.67 Hz
B. 416.7 Hz
C. 5 kHz
D. 12 kHz
G8B08 (C)
How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK signal?
A. The frequency shift in hertz must be at least four times the
keying speed in WPM
B. The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of keying
speed
C. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts
D. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts
G8B09 (B)
What do RTTY, Morse code, AMTOR and packet communications have in
common?
A. They are multipath communications
B. They are digital communications
C. They are analog communications
D. They are only for emergency communications
G8B10 (C)
What is the duty cycle required of a transmitter when sending
Mode B (FEC) AMTOR?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 125%
G8B11 (D)
In what segment of the 20-meter band are most AMTOR operations
found?
A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D. At the bottom of the RTTY segment, near 14.075 MHz
SUBELEMENT G9 - ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [4 exam questions - 4
groups]
G9A Yagi antennas - physical dimensions, impedance matching
radiation patterns, directivity and major lobes
G9A01 (A)
How can the SWR bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be
increased?
A. Use larger diameter elements
B. Use closer element spacing
C. Use traps on the elements
D. Use tapered-diameter elements
G9A02 (B)
Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna
for 14.0 MHz?
A. 17 feet
B. 33 feet
C. 35 feet
D. 66 feet
G9A03 (B)
Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna
for 21.1 MHz?
A. 42 feet
B. 21 feet
C. 17 feet
D. 10.5 feet
G9A04 (C)
Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna
for 28.1 MHz?
A. 8.75 feet
B. 16.6 feet
C. 17.5 feet
D. 35 feet
G9A05 (B)
Which statement about a three-element Yagi antenna is true?
A. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
B. The director is normally the shortest parasitic element
C. The driven element is the longest parasitic element
D. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth
G9A06 (A)
What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding
directors to a Yagi antenna?
A. Gain increases
B. SWR increases
C. Weight decreases
D. Windload decreases
G9A07 (D)
What are some advantages of a Yagi with wide element spacing?
A. High gain, lower loss and a low SWR
B. High front-to-back ratio and lower input resistance
C. Shorter boom length, lower weight and wind resistance
D. High gain, less critical tuning and wider bandwidth
G9A08 (C)
Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radio communications on the
20-meter band?
A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the
horizontal plane
B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a
dipole or vertical antenna
C. It helps reduce interference from other stations off to the
side or behind
D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the
HF bands
G9A09 (C)
What does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a
Yagi antenna?
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to
the reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to
the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to
the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
G9A10 (C)
What is the "main lobe" of a Yagi antenna radiation pattern?
A. The direction of least radiation from the antenna
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the
antenna
D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating
element
G9A11 (A)
What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi
antenna?
A. Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements
B. Use RG-58 feed line
C. Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance
from each direction around the antenna
D. Avoid using towers higher than 30 feet above the ground
G9B Loop antennas - physical dimensions, impedance matching,
radiation patterns, directivity and major lobes
G9B01 (B)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna
driven element for 21.4 MHz?
A. 1.17 feet
B. 11.7 feet
C. 47 feet
D. 469 feet
G9B02 (A)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna
driven element for 14.3 MHz?
A. 17.6 feet
B. 23.4 feet
C. 70.3 feet
D. 175 feet
G9B03 (B)
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna
reflector element for 29.6 MHz?
A. 8.23 feet
B. 8.7 feet
C. 9.7 feet
D. 34.8 feet
G9B04 (B)
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop
antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz?
A. 8.75 feet
B. 11.7 feet
C. 23.4 feet
D. 35 feet
G9B05 (C)
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop
antenna driven element for 24.9 MHz?
A. 10.99 feet
B. 12.95 feet
C. 13.45 feet
D. 40.36 feet
G9B06 (C)
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop
antenna reflector element for 14.1 MHz?
A. 18.26 feet
B. 23.76 feet
C. 24.35 feet
D. 73.05 feet
G9B07 (A)
Which statement about two-element delta loops and quad antennas
is true?
A. They compare favorably with a three-element Yagi
B. They perform poorly above HF
C. They perform very well only at HF
D. They are effective only when constructed using insulated wire
G9B08 (C)
Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation
characteristics of a cubical-quad antenna?
A. The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but
less directivity in the vertical plane
B. The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but
more directivity in the vertical plane
C. The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical
planes
D. The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical
planes
G9B09 (D)
Moving the feed point of a multielement quad antenna from a side
parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will
have what effect?
A. It will significantly increase the antenna feed-point
impedance
B. It will significantly decrease the antenna feed-point
impedance
C. It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to
horizontal
D. It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to
vertical
G9B10 (C)
What does the term "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in
reference to a delta-loop antenna?
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to
the reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to
the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to
the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
G9B11 (C)
What is the "main lobe" of a delta-loop antenna radiation
pattern?
A. The direction of least radiation from an antenna
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the
antenna
D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating
element
G9C Random wire antennas - physical dimensions, impedance
matching, radiation patterns, directivity and major lobes;
feedpoint impedance of 1/2-wavelength dipole and 1/4-wavelength
vertical antennas
G9C01 (A)
What type of multiband transmitting antenna does NOT require a
feed line?
A. A random-wire antenna
B. A triband Yagi antenna
C. A delta-loop antenna
D. A Beverage antenna
G9C02 (D)
What is one advantage of using a random-wire antenna?
A. It is more efficient than any other kind of antenna
B. It will keep RF energy out of your station
C. It doesn't need an impedance matching network
D. It is a multiband antenna
G9C03 (B)
What is one disadvantage of a random-wire antenna?
A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
B. You may experience RF feedback in your station
C. It usually produces vertically polarized radiation
D. You must use an inverted-T matching network for multiband
operation
G9C04 (D)
What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a
ground-plane antenna?
A. It lowers the radiation angle
B. It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms
C. It increases the radiation angle
D. It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms
G9C05 (B)
What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane
antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-
sloping?
A. It decreases
B. It increases
C. It stays the same
D. It approaches zero
G9C06 (A)
What is the low-angle radiation pattern of an ideal
half-wavelength dipole HF antenna installed parallel to the
earth?
A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D. It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one
larger lobe on the other side
G9C07 (B)
How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal)
radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
B. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high,
reflected radio waves from the ground significantly distort the
pattern
C. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
D. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high,
radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
G9C08 (D)
If a slightly shorter parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength
away from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the
antenna's radiation pattern?
A. The radiation pattern will not be affected
B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel
to the two elements
C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from
the ground
D. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, toward the
parasitic element
G9C09 (B)
If a slightly longer parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength
away from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the
antenna's radiation pattern?
A. The radiation pattern will not be affected
B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, away from
the parasitic element, toward the dipole
C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from
the ground
D. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel
to the two elements
G9C10 (B)
Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical
antenna system be placed?
A. As high as possible above the ground
B. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
C. Parallel to the antenna element
D. At the top of the antenna
*** We (ARRL) Recommend - Do Not Use The Following Question ***
G9C11 (D)
If you are transmitting from a ground-mounted vertical antenna,
which of the following is an important reason for people to
stay away from it?
A. To avoid skewing the radiation pattern
B. To avoid changes to the antenna feed-point impedance
C. To avoid excessive grid current
D. To avoid exposure to RF radiation
******************************************
G9D Popular antenna feed lines - characteristic impedance and
impedance matching; SWR calculations
G9D01 (A)
What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a
parallel-conductor antenna feed line?
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the
radius of the conductors
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the
length of the line
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
G9D02 (B)
What is the typical characteristic impedance of coaxial cables
used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
A. 25 and 30 ohms
B. 50 and 75 ohms
C. 80 and 100 ohms
D. 500 and 750 ohms
G9D03 (D)
What is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-type
twinlead?
A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms
G9D04 (C)
What is the typical cause of power being reflected back down an
antenna feed line?
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
C. A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna
feed-point impedance
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
G9D05 (D)
What must be done to prevent standing waves of voltage and
current on an antenna feed line?
A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
B. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical
quarter-wavelengths long
C. The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half-
wavelengths long
D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the
characteristic impedance of the feed line
G9D06 (C)
If a center-fed dipole antenna is fed by parallel-conductor feed
line, how would an inductively coupled matching network be used
between the two?
A. It would not normally be used with parallel-conductor feed
lines
B. It would be used to increase the SWR to an acceptable level
C. It would be used to match the unbalanced transmitter output
to the balanced parallel-conductor feed line
D. It would be used at the antenna feed point to tune out the
radiation resistance
G9D07 (A)
If a 160-meter signal and a 2-meter signal pass through the same
coaxial cable, how will the attenuation of the two signals
compare?
A. It will be greater at 2 meters
B. It will be less at 2 meters
C. It will be the same at both frequencies
D. It will depend on the emission type in use
G9D08 (D)
In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
A. Bels/1000 ft
B. dB/1000 ft
C. Bels/100 ft
D. dB/100 ft
G9D09 (A)
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a
50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 200-ohm
feed-point impedance?
A. 4:1
B. 1:4
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
G9D10 (D)
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a
50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 10-ohm feed-point
impedance?
A. 2:1
B. 50:1
C. 1:5
D. 5:1
G9D11 (D)
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a
50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 50-ohm feed-point
impedance?
A. 2:1
B. 50:50
C. 0:0
D. 1:1
*eof