ELEMENT 4A

ADVANCED QUESTION POOL



Element 4A (Advanced) Question Pool

Last updated 10:37 AM EDT on 04/19/96 

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                            QUESTION POOL
                     ELEMENT 4A - ADVANCED CLASS
                            as released by
                        Question Pool Committee
                        National Conference of
                    Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
                           December 1, 1994
                For use in examinations beginning July 1, 1995.  
                To obtain the necessary graphics sheet, send an
                SASE to ARRL/VEC (New Advanced Pool Graphics Sheet 
                Request) 225 Main Street, Newington CT 06111.  
               
                The answer to each question can be found in 
                paranthesis following the question number. The 
                Part 97 reference found within brakets in questions 
                A1A01-A1F14 are the relavent FCC Rule citations.
                

A1 - COMMISSION'S RULES [6 exam questions - 6 groups]

A1A  Advanced control operator frequency privileges; station
identification; emissions standards

A1A01 (A) [97.301c] 
What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the
75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
A. 3525 - 3750 kHz and 3775 - 4000 kHz
B. 3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHz
C. 3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 3890 kHz
D. 3525 - 3775 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHz

A1A02 (B) [97.301c] 
What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 40-
meter band (ITU Region 2)?
A. 7000 - 7300 kHz
B. 7025 - 7300 kHz
C. 7025 - 7350 kHz
D. 7000 - 7025 kHz

A1A03 (D) [97.301c] 
What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 20-
meter band?
A. 14000 - 14150 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz
B. 14025 - 14175 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz
C. 14000 - 14025 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz
D. 14025 - 14150 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz

A1A04 (C) [97.301c] 
What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 15-
meter band?
A. 21000 - 21200 kHz and 21250 - 21450 kHz
B. 21000 - 21200 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz
C. 21025 - 21200 kHz and 21225 - 21450 kHz
D. 21025 - 21250 kHz and 21270 - 21450 kHz

A1A05 (B) [97.119e3] 
If you are a Technician Plus licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for Advanced privileges, how do you
identify your station when transmitting on 14.185 MHz?
A. Give your call sign followed by the name of the VEC who coordinated
the exam session where you obtained the CSCE
B. Give your call sign followed by the slant mark "/" followed by the
identifier "AA"
C. You may not use your new frequency privileges until your license
arrives from the FCC
D. Give your call sign followed by the word "Advanced"

A1A06 (B) [97.119a] 
How must an Advanced class operator using Amateur Extra frequencies
identify during a contest, assuming the contest control operator holds
an Amateur Extra class license?
A. With his or her own call sign
B. With the control operator's call sign
C. With his or her own call sign followed by the identifier "AE"
D. With the control operator's call sign followed by his or her own
call sign

A1A07 (D) [97.119d] 
How must an Advanced class operator using Advanced frequencies
identify from a Technician Plus class operator's station?
A. With either his or her own call sign followed by the identifier
"KT", or the Technician Plus call sign followed by the identifier "AA"
B. With the Technician Plus call sign
C. The Advanced class operator cannot use Advanced frequencies while
operating the Technician Plus station
D. With either his or her own call sign only, or the Technician Plus
call sign followed by his or her own call sign

A1A08 (A) [97.307d] 
What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission
from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting on a
frequency below 30 MHz?
A. 50 mW
B. 100 mW
C. 10 mW
D. 10 W

A1A09 (B) [97.307d] 
How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must any
spurious emissions from a station transmitter or external RF power
amplifier transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz be attenuated?
A. At least 10 dB
B. At least 40 dB
C. At least 50 dB
D. At least 100 dB

A1A10 (C) [97.307e] 
How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must any
spurious emissions from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier
transmitting on a frequency between 30 and 225 MHz be attenuated?
A. At least 10 dB
B. At least 40 dB
C. At least 60 dB
D. At least 100 dB

A1A11 (D) [97.307e] 
What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission
from a transmitter having a mean power of 25 W or less on frequencies
between 30 and 225 MHz?
A. 5  microwatts
B. 10 microwatts
C. 20 microwatts
D. 25 microwatts

A1B  Definition and operation of remote control and automatic control;
control link

A1B01 (D) [97.3a35] 
What is meant by a remotely controlled station?
A. A station operated away from its regular home location
B. Control of a station from a point located other than at the station
transmitter
C. A station operating under automatic control
D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link

A1B02 (D) [97.3a6] 
What is the term for the control of a station that is transmitting
without the control operator being present at the control point?
A. Simplex control
B. Manual control
C. Linear control
D. Automatic control

A1B03 (A) [97.201d,97.203d,97.205d]
Which kind of station operation may not be automatically controlled?
A. Control of a model craft
B. Beacon operation
C. Auxiliary operation
D. Repeater operation

A1B04 (B) [97.205d] 
Which kind of station operation may be automatically controlled?
A. Stations without a control operator
B. Stations in repeater operation
C. Stations under remote control
D. Stations controlling model craft

A1B05 (A) [97.3a6] 
What is meant by automatic control of a station?
A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that a control
operator does not have to be present at a control point
B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
C. Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does
not have to be present at the control point at all times
D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally
controlled station

A1B06 (B) [97.3a6] 
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under
automatic control differ from one under local control?
A. Under local control there is no control operator
B. Under automatic control a control operator is not required to be
present at a control point
C. Under automatic control there is no control operator
D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be
present at a control point

A1B07 (C) [97.205b, 97.301b,c,d] 
What frequencies in the 10-meter band are available for repeater
operation?
A. 28.0 - 28.7 MHz
B. 29.0 - 29.7 MHz
C. 29.5 - 29.7 MHz
D. 28.5 - 29.7 MHz

A1B08 (D) [97.205b, 97.301a]
What frequencies in the 6-meter band are available for repeater
operation (ITU Region 2)?
A. 51.00 - 52.00 MHz
B. 50.25 - 52.00 MHz
C. 52.00 - 53.00 MHz
D. 51.00 - 54.00 MHz

A1B09 (A) [97.205b, 97.301a] 
What frequencies in the 2-meter band are available for repeater
operation (ITU Region 2)?
A. 144.5 - 145.5 and 146 - 148 MHz
B. 144.5 - 148 MHz
C. 144 - 145.5 and 146 - 148 MHz
D. 144 - 148 MHz

A1B10 (B) [97.205b, 97.301a] 
What frequencies in the 1.25-meter band are available for repeater
operation (ITU Region 2)?
A. 220.25 - 225.00 MHz
B. 222.15 - 225.00 MHz
C. 221.00 - 225.00 MHz
D. 223.00 - 225.00 MHz

A1B11 (A) [97.205b, 97.301a] 
What frequencies in the 70-cm band are available for repeater
operation (ITU Region 2)?
A. 420 - 431, 433 - 435 and 438 - 450 MHz
B. 420 - 440 and 445 - 450 MHz
C. 420 - 435 and 438 - 450 MHz
D. 420 - 431, 435 - 438 and 439 - 450 MHz

A1B12 (C) [97.301a] 
What frequencies in the 23-cm band are available for repeater
operation?
A. 1270 - 1300 MHz
B. 1270 - 1295 MHz
C. 1240 - 1300 MHz
D. Repeater operation is not permitted in the band

A1B13 (C) [97.213b] 
If the control link of a station under remote control malfunctions,
how long may the station continue to transmit?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 5 minutes

A1B14 (C) [97.3a35, 97.3a36, 97.213a] 
What is a control link?
A. A device that automatically controls an unattended station
B. An automatically operated link between two stations
C. The means of control between a control point and a remotely
controlled station
D. A device that limits the time of a station's transmission

A1B15 (D) [97.3a35, 97.3a36, 97.213a] 
What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between a
control point and a remotely controlled station?
A. A tone link
B. A wire control
C. A remote control
D. A control link

A1C  Type acceptance of external RF power amplifiers and external RF
power amplifier kits

A1C01 (D) [97.315a] 
How many external RF amplifiers of a particular design capable of
operation below 144 MHz may an unlicensed, non-amateur build or modify
in one calendar year without obtaining a grant of FCC type acceptance?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. None

A1C02 (B) [97.315c] 
If an RF amplifier manufacturer was granted FCC type acceptance for
one of its amplifier models for amateur use, what would this allow the
manufacturer to market?
A. All current models of their equipment
B. Only that particular amplifier model
C. Any future amplifier models
D. Both the current and any future amplifier models

A1C03 (A) [97.315b5] 
Under what condition may an equipment dealer sell an external RF power
amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been FCC
type accepted?
A. If it was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and
is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
B. If it was assembled from a kit by the equipment dealer
C. If it was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not
require type acceptance of RF power amplifiers
D. If it was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it
was type accepted by that country's government

A1C04 (D) [97.317a1] 
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an
external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC
type acceptance?
A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5
watts of mean RF input power
B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and
output networks
C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
D. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when operated at
its full output power

A1C05 (D) [97.317a2] 
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an
external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC
type acceptance?
A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5
watts of mean RF input power
B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and
output networks
C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
D. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when placed in the
"standby" or "off" position, but is still connected to the transmitter

A1C06 (C) [97.317b] 
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an
external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC
type acceptance?
A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5
watts of mean RF input power
B. It must exhibit a gain of at least 20 dB for any input signal
C. It must not be capable of operation on any frequency between 24 MHz
and 35 MHz
D. Any spurious emissions from the amplifier must be no more than 40
dB stronger than the desired output signal

A1C07 (B) [97.317a3] 
Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an
external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC
type acceptance?
A. It must have a time-delay circuit to prevent it from operating
continuously for more than ten minutes
B. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when driven with at
least 50 W mean RF power (unless a higher drive level is specified)
C. It must not be capable of modification by an amateur operator
without voiding the warranty
D. It must exhibit no more than 6 dB of gain over its entire operating
range

A1C08 (A) [97.317c1] 
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier
from being granted FCC type acceptance?
A. Any accessible wiring which, when altered, would permit operation
of the amplifier in a manner contrary to FCC Rules
B. Failure to include a schematic diagram and theory of operation
manual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier
C. The capability of being switched by the operator to any amateur
frequency below 24 MHz
D. Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by at
least 50 watts of mean input power

A1C09 (C) [97.317c8] 
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier
from being granted FCC type acceptance?
A. Failure to include controls or adjustments that would permit the
amplifier to operate on any frequency below 24 MHz
B. Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by at
least 50 watts of mean input power
C. Any features designed to facilitate operation in a
telecommunication service other than the Amateur Service
D. The omission of a schematic diagram and theory of operation manual
that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier

A1C10 (D) [97.317c3] 
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier
from being granted FCC type acceptance?
A. The omission of a safety switch in the high-voltage power supply to
turn off the power if the cabinet is opened
B. Failure of the amplifier to exhibit more than 15 dB of gain over
its entire operating range
C. The omission of a time-delay circuit to prevent the amplifier from
operating continuously for more than ten minutes
D. The inclusion of instructions for operation or modification of the
amplifier in a manner contrary to the FCC Rules

A1C11 (B) [97.317b2] 
Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifier
from being granted FCC type acceptance?
A. Failure to include a safety switch in the high-voltage power supply
to turn off the power if the cabinet is opened
B. The amplifier produces 3 dB of gain for input signals between 26
MHz and 28 MHz
C. The inclusion of a schematic diagram and theory of operation manual
that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier
D. The amplifier produces 1500 watts of output power when driven by at
least 50 watts of mean input power

A1D  Definition and operation of spread spectrum; auxiliary station
operation

A1D01 (C) [97.3c8] 
What is the name for emissions using bandwidth-expansion modulation?
A. RTTY
B. Image
C. Spread spectrum
D. Pulse

A1D02 (C) [97.311c] 
What two spread spectrum techniques are permitted on the amateur
bands?
A. Hybrid switching and direct frequency
B. Frequency switching and linear frequency
C. Frequency hopping and direct sequence
D. Logarithmic feedback and binary sequence

A1D03 (C) [97.311g] 
What is the maximum transmitter power allowed for spread spectrum
transmissions?
A. 5 watts
B. 10 watts
C. 100 watts
D. 1500 watts

A1D04 (D) [97.3a7] 
What is meant by auxiliary station operation?
A. A station operated away from its home location
B. Remote control of model craft
C. A station controlled from a point located other than at the station
transmitter
D. Communications sent point-to-point within a system of cooperating
amateur stations

A1D05 (A) [97.3a6, 97.3a7, 97.3a35, 97.201, 97.205, 97.213a] 
What is one use for a station in auxiliary operation?
A. Remote control of a station in repeater operation
B. Remote control of model craft
C. Passing of international third-party communications
D. The retransmission of NOAA weather broadcasts

A1D06 (B) [97.3a7] 
Auxiliary stations communicate with which other kind of amateur
stations?
A. Those registered with a civil defense organization
B. Those within a system of cooperating amateur stations
C. Those in space station operation
D. Any kind not under manual control

A1D07 (C) [97.201b] 
On what amateur frequencies above 222.0 MHz (the 1.25-meter band) are
auxiliary stations NOT allowed to operate?
A. 222.00 - 223.00 MHz, 432 - 433 MHz and 436 - 438 MHz
B. 222.10 - 223.91 MHz, 431 - 432 MHz and 435 - 437 MHz
C. 222.00 - 222.15 MHz, 431 - 433 MHz and 435 - 438 MHz
D. 222.00 - 222.10 MHz, 430 - 432 MHz and 434 - 437 MHz

A1D08 (B) [97.201a] 
What class of amateur license must one hold to be the control operator
of an auxiliary station?
A. Any class
B. Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra
C. General, Advanced or Amateur Extra
D. Advanced or Amateur Extra

A1D09 (C) [97.119b1] 
When an auxiliary station is identified in Morse code using an
automatic keying device used only for identification, what is the
maximum code speed permitted?
A. 13 words per minute
B. 30 words per minute
C. 20 words per minute
D. There is no limitation

A1D10 (D) [97.119a]
How often must an auxiliary station be identified?
A. At least once during each transmission
B. Only at the end of a series of transmissions
C. At the beginning of a series of transmissions
D. At least once every ten minutes during and at the end of activity

A1D11 (A) [97.119b3] 
When may an auxiliary station be identified using a digital code?
A. Any time the digital code is used for at least part of the
communication
B. Any time
C. Identification by digital code is not allowed
D. No identification is needed for digital transmissions

A1E  "Line A"; National Radio Quiet Zone; business communications;
restricted operation; antenna structure limitations

A1E01 (A) [97.3a26] 
Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes
"Line A"?
A. A line roughly parallel to, and south of, the US-Canadian border
B. A line roughly parallel to, and west of, the US Atlantic coastline
C. A line roughly parallel to, and north of, the US-Mexican border and
Gulf coastline
D. A line roughly parallel to, and east of, the US Pacific coastline

A1E02 (D) [97.303f1] 
Amateur stations may not transmit in which frequency segment if they
are located north of "Line A"?
A. 21.225-21.300 MHz
B. 53-54 MHz
C. 222-223 MHz
D. 420-430 MHz

A1E03 (C) [97.3a29] 
What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
C. An Area in Maryland, West Virginia and Virginia surrounding the
National Radio Astronomy Observatory
D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

A1E04 (A) [97.203e,97.205f]
Which of the following agencies is protected from interference to its
operations by the National Radio Quiet Zone?
A. The National Radio Astronomy Observatory at Green Bank, WV
B. NASA's Mission Control Center in Houston, TX
C. The White Sands Test Area in White Sands, NM
D. The space shuttle launch facilities in Cape Canaveral, FL

A1E05 (B) [97.113] 
Which communication is NOT a prohibited transmission in the Amateur
Service?
A. Sending messages for hire or material compensation
B. Calling a commercial tow truck service for a breakdown on the
highway
C. Calling your employer to see if you have any customers to contact
D. Sending a false distress call as a "joke"

A1E06 (C) [97.113a3] 
Under what conditions may you notify other amateurs of the
availability of amateur station equipment for sale or trade over the
airwaves?
A. You are never allowed to sell or trade equipment on the air
B. Only if this activity does not result in a profit for you
C. Only if this activity is not conducted on a regular basis
D. Only if the equipment is FCC type accepted and has a serial number

A1E07 (C) [97.113a2]
When may amateurs accept payment for using their own stations (other
than a club station) to send messages?
A. When employed by the FCC
B. When passing emergency traffic
C. Under no circumstances
D. When passing international third-party communications

A1E08 (D) [97.113a2] 
When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for
providing communication services to another party?
A. When the repeater is operating under portable power
B. When the repeater is operating under local control
C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
D. Under no circumstances

A1E09 (D) [97.113a3] 
When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another
government agency
C. When transmitting international third-party communications
D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary
interest in the communications

A1E10 (C) [97.15a] 
What must an amateur obtain before installing an antenna structure
more than 200 feet high?
A. An environmental assessment
B. A Special Temporary Authorization
C. Prior FCC approval
D. An effective radiated power statement

A1E11 (A) [97.15d] 
From what government agencies must you obtain permission if you wish
to install an antenna structure that exceeds 200 feet above ground
level?
A. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the Federal
Communications Commission (FCC)
B. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the Federal
Communications Commission (FCC)
C. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the Environmental
Protection Agency (EPA)
D. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and National Aeronautics
and Space Administration (NASA)

A1F  Volunteer examinations: when examination is required; exam
credit; examination grading; Volunteer Examiner requirements;
Volunteer Examiner conduct

A1F01 (B) [97.505a] 
What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds an
unexpired (or expired within the grace period) FCC-issued amateur
operator license?
A. No credit
B. Credit for the least elements required for the license
C. Credit for only the telegraphy requirements of the license
D. Credit for only the written element requirements of the license

A1F02 (B) [97.503a1] 
What ability with international Morse code must an applicant
demonstrate when taking an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination?
A. To send and receive text at not less than 13 WPM
B. To send and receive text at not less than 5 WPM
C. To send and receive text at not less than 20 WPM
D. To send text at not less than 13 WPM

A1F03 (A) [97.503a] 
Besides all the letters of the alphabet, numerals 0-9 and the period,
comma and question mark, what additional characters are used in
telegraphy examinations?
A. The slant mark and prosigns AR, BT and SK
B. The slant mark, open and closed parenthesis and prosigns AR, BT and
SK
C. The slant mark, dollar sign and prosigns AR, BT and SK
D. No other characters

A1F04 (B) [97.507d] 
In a telegraphy examination, how many letters of the alphabet are
counted as one word?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10

A1F05 (C) [97.509b2] 
What is the minimum age to be a Volunteer Examiner?
A. 16
B. 21
C. 18
D. 13

A1F06 (A) [97.509b4] 
When may a person whose amateur operator or station license has ever
been revoked or suspended be a Volunteer Examiner?
A. Under no circumstances
B. After 5 years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension
C. After 3 years have elapsed since the revocation or suspension
D. After review and subsequent approval by a VEC

A1F07 (B) [97.509b5] 
When may an employee of a company engaged in the distribution of
equipment used in connection with amateur station transmissions be a
Volunteer Examiner?
A. When the employee is employed in the Amateur Radio sales part of
the company
B. When the employee does not normally communicate with the
manufacturing or distribution part of the company
C. When the employee serves as a Volunteer Examiner for his or her
customers
D. When the employee does not normally communicate with the benefits
and policies part of the company

A1F08 (A) [97.509a, b1, b2, b3i] 
Who may administer an examination for a Novice license?
A. Three accredited Volunteer Examiners at least 18 years old and
holding at least a General class license
B. Three amateur operators at least 18 years old and holding at least
a General class license
C. Any accredited Volunteer Examiner at least 21 years old and holding
at least a General class license
D. Two amateur operators at least 21 years old and holding at least a
Technician class license

A1F09 (A) [97.509e] 
When may Volunteer Examiners be compensated for their services?
A. Under no circumstances
B. When out-of-pocket expenses exceed $25
C. When traveling over 25 miles to the test site
D. When there are more than 20 applicants attending an examination
session

A1F10 (C) [97.509e] 
What are the penalties that may result from fraudulently administering
amateur examinations?
A. Suspension of amateur station license for a period not to exceed 3
months
B. A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was
committed
C. Revocation of amateur station license and suspension of operator's
license
D. Restriction to administering only Novice class license examinations

A1F11 (D) [97.509e] 
What are the penalties that may result from administering examinations
for money or other considerations?
A. Suspension of amateur station license for a period not to exceed 3
months
B. A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was
committed
C. Restriction to administering only Novice class license examinations
D. Revocation of amateur station license and suspension of operator's
license

A1F12 (A) [97.509h] 
How soon must the administering Volunteer Examiners grade an
applicant's completed examination element?
A. Immediately
B. Within 48 hours
C. Within 10 days
D. Within 24 hours

A1F13 (B) [97.509m] 
After the successful administration of an examination, within how many
days must the Volunteer Examiners submit the application to their
coordinating VEC?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 5
D. 30

A1F14 (C) [97.509m] 
After the successful administration of an examination, where must the
Volunteer Examiners submit the application?
A. To the nearest FCC Field Office
B. To the FCC in Washington, DC
C. To the coordinating VEC
D. To the FCC in Gettysburg, PA

A2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [1 question - 1 group]

A2A  Facsimile communications; slow-scan TV transmissions; spread-
spectrum transmissions; HF digital communications (i.e., PacTOR,
CLOVER, HF packet); automatic HF Forwarding

A2A01 (D) 
What is facsimile?
A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture
when printed
B. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television
C. The transmission of video by amateur television
D. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper

A2A02 (A) 
What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picture
transmitted by an amateur station?
A. 240 lines per minute
B. 50 lines per minute
C. 150 lines per second
D. 60 lines per second

A2A03 (B) 
What is the approximate transmission time per frame for a facsimile
picture transmitted by an amateur station at 240 lpm?
A. 6 minutes
B. 3.3 minutes
C. 6 seconds
D. 1/60 second

A2A04 (B) 
What is the term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio?
A. Television
B. Facsimile
C. Xerography
D. ACSSB

A2A05 (C) 
In facsimile, what device converts variations in picture brightness
and darkness into voltage variations?
A. An LED
B. A Hall-effect transistor
C. A photodetector
D. An optoisolator

A2A06 (D) 
What information is sent by slow-scan television transmissions?
A. Baudot or ASCII characters that form a picture when printed
B. Pictures for permanent display on paper
C. Moving pictures
D. Still pictures

A2A07 (C) 
How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan
color television picture?
A. 30 or 60
B. 60 or 100
C. 128 or 256
D. 180 or 360

A2A08 (C) 
What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan
television picture?
A. 2300 Hz
B. 2000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
D. 120 Hz

A2A09 (D) 
What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan
television picture?
A. 120 Hz
B. 1500 Hz
C. 2000 Hz
D. 2300 Hz

A2A10 (A) 
Why are received spread-spectrum signals so resistant to interference?
A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed
in the receiver
B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its
signal from being easily overpowered
C. The receiver is always equipped with a special digital signal
processor (DSP) interference filter
D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the
transmitter to change frequencies

A2A11  (D)
How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work?
A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the
transmitter to change frequencies
B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the
transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an
RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
D. The frequency of an RF carrier is changed very rapidly according to
a particular pseudo-random sequence

A2A12 (C)
What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?
A. 48 bauds
B. 110 bauds
C. 300 bauds
D. 1200 bauds

A3 - RADIO-WAVE PROPAGATION [2 questions - 2 groups]

A3A Sporadic-E; auroral propagation; ground-wave propagation
(distances and coverage, and frequency vs. distance in each of these
topics)

A3A01 (C) 
What is a sporadic-E condition?
A. Variations in E-region height caused by sunspot variations
B. A brief decrease in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-
region height
C. Patches of dense ionization at E-region height
D. Partial tropospheric ducting at E-region height

A3A02 (D) 
What is the term for the propagation condition in which scattered
patches of relatively dense ionization develop seasonally at E-region
heights?
A. Auroral propagation
B. Ducting
C. Scatter
D. Sporadic-E

A3A03 (A) 
In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent?
A. The equatorial regions
B. The arctic regions
C. The northern hemisphere
D. The western hemisphere

A3A04 (B) 
On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagation
effect of sporadic-E most often observed?
A. 2 meters
B. 6 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 160 meters

A3A05 (D) 
What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications?
A. The readability of SSB signals increases
B. FM communications are clearer
C. CW signals have a clearer tone
D. CW signals have a fluttery tone

A3A06 (C) 
What is the cause of auroral activity?
A. A high sunspot level
B. A low sunspot level
C. The emission of charged particles from the sun
D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes

A3A07 (B) 
In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional
antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?
A. South
B. North
C. East
D. West

A3A08 (D) 
Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?
A. At F-region height
B. In the equatorial band
C. At D-region height
D. At E-region height

A3A09 (A) 
Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation?
A. CW and SSB
B. SSB and FM
C. FM and CW
D. RTTY and AM

A3A10 (B) 
As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground-wave
propagation distance change?
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It stays the same
D. Radio waves don't propagate along the Earth's surface

A3A11 (A) 
What typical polarization does ground-wave propagation have?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. Elliptical

A3B  Selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle over flat or
sloping terrain; earth effects on propagation

A3B01 (B) 
What causes selective fading?
A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
B. Phase differences between radio-wave components of the same
transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
C. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving
station ordinarily occurring shortly after either sunrise or sunset
D. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations

A3B02 (C) 
What is the propagation effect called that causes selective fading
between received wave components of the same transmission?
A. Faraday rotation
B. Diversity reception
C. Phase differences
D. Phase shift

A3B03 (B) 
Which emission modes suffer the most from selective fading?
A. CW and SSB
B. FM and double sideband AM
C. SSB and AMTOR
D. SSTV and CW

A3B04 (A) 
How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective
fading?
A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
B. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
C. It is the same for both narrow and wide bandwidths
D. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect

A3B05 (D) 
Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
A. E-region skip
B. D-region skip
C. Auroral skip
D. Radio waves may be bent

A3B06 (A) 
How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed
the geometric horizon?
A. By approximately 15% of the distance
B. By approximately twice the distance
C. By approximately one-half the distance
D. By approximately four times the distance

A3B07 (B) 
For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how
does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height above flat ground?
A. It increases with increasing height
B. It decreases with increasing height
C. It does not vary with height
D. It depends on E-region height, not antenna height

A3B08 (B) 
For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how
does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with a downward slope of the
ground (moving away from the antenna)?
A. It increases as the slope gets steeper
B. It decreases as the slope gets steeper
C. It does not depend on the ground slope
D. It depends on F-region height, not ground slope

A3B09 (B) 
What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels
for some distance within the F2 region?
A. Oblique-angle ray
B. Pedersen ray
C. Ordinary ray
D. Heaviside ray

A3B10 (B) 
Excluding enhanced propagation, what is the approximate range of
normal VHF propagation?
A. 1000 miles
B. 500 miles
C. 1500 miles
D. 2000 miles

A3B11 (C) 
What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over
500 miles?
A. D-region absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Moonbounce

A3B12 (A) 
What happens to an electromagnetic wave as it encounters air molecules
and other particles?
A. The wave loses kinetic energy
B. The wave gains kinetic energy
C. An aurora is created
D. Nothing happens because the waves have no physical substance

A4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICE [4 questions - 4 groups]

A4A Frequency measurement devices (i.e. frequency counter,
oscilloscope Lissajous figures, dip meter); component mounting
techniques (i.e. surface, dead bug {raised}, circuit board)

A4A01 (B) 
What is a frequency standard?
A. A frequency chosen by a net control operator for net operations
B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz
D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies

A4A02 (A) 
What does a frequency counter do?
A. It makes frequency measurements
B. It produces a reference frequency
C. It measures FM transmitter deviation
D. It generates broad-band white noise

A4A03 (C) 
If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of an oscilloscope
and a 150 Hz signal is fed to the vertical input, what type of
Lissajous figure should be displayed on the screen?
A. A looping pattern with 100 loops horizontally and 150 loops
vertically
B. A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high
C. A looping pattern with 3 loops horizontally and 2 loops vertically
D. An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high

A4A04 (C) 
What is a dip-meter?
A. A field-strength meter
B. An SWR meter
C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
D. A marker generator

A4A05 (D) 
What does a dip-meter do?
A. It accurately indicates signal strength
B. It measures frequency accurately
C. It measures transmitter output power accurately
D. It gives an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit

A4A06 (B) 
How does a dip-meter function?
A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize a detector coil
B. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered
current
C. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current
D. Harmonics from an oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit
Q

A4A07 (D) 
What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station?
A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure
percentage of modulation
B. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of
modulation
C. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance
D. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a
tuned circuit resonant frequency

A4A08 (B) 
What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuit
being checked?
A. Resistive and inductive
B. Inductive and capacitive
C. Resistive and capacitive
D. Strong field

A4A09 (A) 
For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be coupled with a
tuned circuit being checked?
A. As loosely as possible
B. As tightly as possible
C. First loosely, then tightly
D. With a jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked

A4A10 (B) 
What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with a
tuned circuit being checked?
A. Harmonics are generated
B. A less accurate reading results
C. Cross modulation occurs
D. Intermodulation distortion occurs

A4A11 (D) 
What circuit construction technique uses leadless components mounted
between circuit board pads?
A. Raised mounting
B. Integrated circuit mounting
C. Hybrid device mounting
D. Surface mounting

A4B  Meter performance limitations; oscilloscope performance
limitations; frequency counter performance limitations

A4B01 (B) 
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a
D'Arsonval-type meter?
A. Calibration, coil impedance and meter size
B. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance
C. Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass
D. Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current

A4B02 (A) 
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of
an oscilloscope?
A. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and the linearity and
bandwidth of the deflection amplifiers
B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage
C. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and tube face voltage
increments
D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency
increments

A4B03 (D) 
How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved?
A. By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time
base
B. By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the
vertical sweep rate
C. By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier
frequency response
D. By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier
frequency response

A4B04 (B) 
What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a
frequency counter?
A. Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base
stability
B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability
C. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time
base stability
D. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and
temperature coefficient of the logic

A4B05 (C) 
How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved?
A. By using slower digital logic
B. By improving the accuracy of the frequency response
C. By increasing the accuracy of the time base
D. By using faster digital logic

A4B06 (C) 
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 165.2 Hz
B. 14.652 kHz
C. 146.52 Hz
D. 1.4652 MHz

A4B07 (A) 
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 14.652 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 1.4652 Hz
D. 1.4652 kHz

A4B08 (D) 
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads
146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 146.52 Hz
B. 10 Hz
C. 146.52 kHz
D. 1465.20 Hz

A4B09 (D) 
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads
432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 43.21 MHz
B. 10 Hz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 432.1 Hz

A4B10 (A) 
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads
432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 43.21 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 432.1 Hz
D. 0.2 MHz

A4B11 (C) 
If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads
432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured
could differ from the reading?
A. 10 MHz
B. 10 Hz
C. 4321 Hz
D. 432.1 Hz

A4C  Receiver performance characteristics (i.e., phase noise,
desensitization, capture effect, intercept point, noise floor, dynamic
range {blocking and IMD}, image rejection, MDS, signal-
to-noise-ratio)

A4C01 (D) 
What is the effect of excessive phase noise in a receiver local
oscillator?
A. It limits the receiver ability to receive strong signals
B. It reduces the receiver sensitivity
C. It decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation distortion
dynamic range
D. It allows strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with
reception of weak signals

A4C02 (A) 
What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a
strong signal near the received frequency?
A. Desensitization
B. Quieting
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Squelch gain rollback

A4C03 (B) 
What causes receiver desensitization?
A. Audio gain adjusted too low
B. Strong adjacent-channel signals
C. Squelch gain adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain adjusted too low

A4C04 (A) 
What is one way receiver desensitization can be reduced?
A. Shield the receiver from the transmitter causing the problem
B. Increase the transmitter audio gain
C. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
D. Increase the receiver bandwidth

A4C05 (C) 
What is the capture effect?
A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver
B. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver
C. The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signal
D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal

A4C06 (C) 
What is the term for the blocking of one FM-phone signal by another
stronger FM-phone signal?
A. Desensitization
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Capture effect
D. Frequency discrimination

A4C07 (A) 
With which emission type is capture effect most pronounced?
A. FM
B. SSB
C. AM
D. CW

A4C08 (D) 
What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver?
A. The weakest signal that can be detected under noisy atmospheric
conditions
B. The amount of phase noise generated by the receiver local
oscillator
C. The minimum level of noise that will overload the receiver RF
amplifier stage
D. The weakest signal that can be detected above the receiver internal
noise

A4C09 (B) 
What is the blocking dynamic range of a receiver that has an 8-dB
noise figure and an IF bandwidth of 500 Hz if the blocking level (1-dB
compression point) is -20 dBm?
A. -119 dBm
B. 119 dB
C. 146 dB
D. -146 dBm

A4C10 (B) 
What part of a superheterodyne receiver determines the image rejection
ratio of the receiver?
A. Product detector
B. RF amplifier
C. AGC loop
D. IF filter

A4C11 (B) 
If you measured the MDS of a receiver, what would you be measuring?
A. The meter display sensitivity (MDS), or the responsiveness of the
receiver S-meter to all signals
B. The minimum discernible signal (MDS), or the weakest signal that
the receiver can detect
C. The minimum distorting signal (MDS), or the strongest signal the
receiver can detect without overloading
D. The maximum detectable spectrum (MDS), or the lowest to highest
frequency range of the receiver

A4D  Intermodulation and cross-modulation interference

A4D01 (D) 
If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one or both of
their final amplifiers and unwanted signals at the sum and difference
frequencies of the original signals are generated, what is this
called?
A. Amplifier desensitization
B. Neutralization
C. Adjacent channel interference
D. Intermodulation interference

A4D02 (B) 
How does intermodulation interference between two repeater
transmitters usually occur?
A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase
from airplanes passing overhead
B. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both
of their final amplifiers
C. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in
one or both of their final amplifiers
D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from
airplanes passing overhead

A4D03 (B) 
How can intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters
in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated?
A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power
B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the
feed line to the transmitter and duplexer
C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line

A4D04 (D) 
What is cross-modulation interference?
A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type
B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp
C. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal
D. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the
desired signal

A4D05 (B) 
What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from
a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being
received?
A. Intermodulation distortion
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Receiver quieting
D. Capture effect

A4D06 (A) 
How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced?
A. By installing a filter at the receiver
B. By using a better antenna
C. By increasing the receiver RF gain while decreasing the AF gain
D. By adjusting the passband tuning

A4D07 (C) 
What is the result of cross-modulation?
A. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
B. Receiver quieting
C. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal
D. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier

A4D08 (C) 
What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
A. Too little gain
B. Lack of neutralization
C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
D. Positive feedback

A4D09 (A) 
If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product
signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are
the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal?
A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
D. 73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz

A4D10 (D) 
If a television receiver suffers from cross modulation when a nearby
amateur transmitter is operating at 14 MHz, which of the following
cures might be effective?
A. A low-pass filter attached to the output of the amateur transmitter
B. A high-pass filter attached to the output of the amateur
transmitter
C. A low-pass filter attached to the input of the television receiver
D. A high-pass filter attached to the input of the television receiver

A4D11 (B) 
Which of the following is an example of intermodulation distortion?
A. Receiver blocking
B. Splatter from an SSB transmitter
C. Overdeviation of an FM transmitter
D. Excessive 2nd-harmonic output from a transmitter

A5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES  [10 questions - 10 groups]

A5A  Characteristics of resonant circuits

A5A01 (A) 
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger
than the voltage applied to them?
A. Resonance
B. Capacitance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance

A5A02 (C) 
What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
A. The highest frequency that will pass current
B. The lowest frequency that will pass current
C. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive
reactance
D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum

A5A03 (B) 
What are the conditions for resonance to occur in an electrical
circuit?
A. The power factor is at a minimum
B. Inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
C. The square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive
reactance is equal to the resonant frequency
D. The square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive
reactance is equal to the resonant frequency

A5A04 (D) 
When the inductive reactance of an electrical circuit equals its
capacitive reactance, what is this condition called?
A. Reactive quiescence
B. High Q
C. Reactive equilibrium
D. Resonance

A5A05 (D) 
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at
resonance?
A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance

A5A06 (A) 
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor,
an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

A5A07 (B) 
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-C
circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It is DC
D. It is zero

A5A08 (B) 
What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components
of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It is DC
D. It is zero

A5A09 (A) 
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-C
circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It is DC
D. It is zero

A5A10 (C) 
What is the relationship between the current through a resonant
circuit and the voltage across the circuit?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

A5A11 (C) 
What is the relationship between the current into (or out of) a
parallel resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

A5B  Series resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at a
specific frequency)

A5B01 (C) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
A. 79.6 MHz
B. 1.78 MHz
C. 3.56 MHz
D. 7.96 MHz

A5B02 (B) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
A. 1.99 kHz
B. 1.78 MHz
C. 1.99 MHz
D. 1.78 kHz

A5B03 (D) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 3.18 MHz
B. 3.18 kHz
C. 7.12 kHz
D. 7.12 MHz

A5B04 (A) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 10.1 MHz
B. 63.7 MHz
C. 10.1 kHz
D. 63.7 kHz

A5B05 (B) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
A. 13.1 MHz
B. 14.5 MHz
C. 14.5 kHz
D. 13.1 kHz

A5B06 (D) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads?
A. 19.9 kHz
B. 17.8 kHz
C. 19.9 MHz
D. 17.8 MHz

A5B07 (C) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms,  L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads?
A. 2.84 MHz
B. 28.4 MHz
C. 21.3 MHz
D. 2.13 MHz

A5B08 (A) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?
A. 23.7 MHz
B. 23.7 kHz
C. 35.4 kHz
D. 35.4 MHz

A5B09 (B) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads?
A. 28.1 kHz
B. 28.1 MHz
C. 49.7 MHz
D. 49.7 kHz

A5B10 (D) 
What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47
ohms, L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads?
A. 17.7 MHz
B. 17.7 kHz
C. 53.1 kHz
D. 53.1 MHz

A5B11 (C) 
What is the value of capacitance (C) in a series R-L-C circuit if the
circuit resonant frequency is 14.25 MHz and L is 2.84 microhenrys?
A. 2.2 microfarads
B. 254 microfarads
C. 44 picofarads
D. 3933 picofarads

A5C  Parallel resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at a
specific frequency)

A5C01 (A) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 50.3 MHz
B. 15.9 MHz
C. 15.9 kHz
D. 50.3 kHz

A5C02 (B) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?
A. 29.1 kHz
B. 29.1 MHz
C. 5.31 MHz
D. 5.31 kHz

A5C03 (C) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads?
A. 23.7 kHz
B. 3.54 kHz
C. 23.7 MHz
D. 3.54 MHz

A5C04 (D) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads?
A. 2.65 kHz
B. 20.5 kHz
C. 2.65 MHz
D. 20.5 MHz

A5C05 (A) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads?
A. 18.4 MHz
B. 2.12 MHz
C. 18.4 kHz
D. 2.12 kHz

A5C06 (B) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
A. 1.33 kHz
B. 14.5 MHz
C. 1.33 MHz
D. 14.5 kHz

A5C07 (C) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads?
A. 6.63 MHz
B. 6.63 kHz
C. 10.3 MHz
D. 10.3 kHz

A5C08 (D) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads?
A. 3.18 MHz
B. 3.18 kHz
C. 7.12 kHz
D. 7.12 MHz

A5C09 (A) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 3.56 MHz
B. 7.96 kHz
C. 3.56 kHz
D. 7.96 MHz

A5C10 (B) 
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7
kilohms, L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads?
A. 1.77 MHz
B. 1.68 MHz
C. 1.77 kHz
D. 1.68 kHz

A5C11 (D) 
What is the value of inductance (L) in a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
circuit resonant frequency is 14.25 MHz and C is 44 picofarads?
A. 253.8 millihenrys
B. 3.9 millihenrys
C. 0.353 microhenrys
D. 2.8 microhenrys

A5D  Skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields

A5D01 (A) 
What is the result of skin effect?
A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
conductor, closer to the surface
B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
conductor, closer to the surface
C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the
impedance
D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the
impedance

A5D02 (C) 
What effect causes most of an RF current to flow along the surface of
a conductor?
A. Layer effect
B. Seeburg effect
C. Skin effect
D. Resonance effect

A5D03 (A) 
Where does almost all RF current flow in a conductor?
A. Along the surface of the conductor
B. In the center of the conductor
C. In a magnetic field around the conductor
D. In a magnetic field in the center of the conductor

A5D04 (D) 
Why does most of an RF current flow within a few thousandths of an
inch of its conductor's surface?
A. Because a conductor has AC resistance due to self-inductance
B. Because the RF resistance of a conductor is much less than the DC
resistance
C. Because of the heating of the conductor's interior
D. Because of skin effect

A5D05 (C) 
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than
for direct currents?
A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
C. Because of skin effect
D. Because conductors are non-linear devices

A5D06 (C) 
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic
field?
A. A battery
B. A transformer
C. A capacitor
D. An inductor

A5D07 (B) 
What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
A. Coulomb
B. Joule
C. Watt
D. Volt

A5D08 (B) 
What is a magnetic field?
A. Current through the space around a permanent magnet
B. The space around a conductor, through which a magnetic force acts
C. The space between the plates of a charged capacitor, through which
a magnetic force acts
D. The force that drives current through a resistor

A5D09 (D) 
In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in
relation to the direction of electron flow?
A. In the same direction as the current
B. In a direction opposite to the current
C. In all directions; omnidirectional
D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule

A5D10 (D) 
What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
A. The resistance divided by the current
B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
C. The diameter of the conductor
D. The amount of current

A5D11 (B) 
What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or
electrostatic field?
A. Amperes-joules
B. Potential energy
C. Joules-coulombs
D. Kinetic energy

A5E  Half-power bandwidth

A5E01 (A) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
A. 18.9 kHz
B. 1.89 kHz
C. 189 Hz
D. 58.7 kHz

A5E02 (D) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218?
A. 58.7 kHz
B. 606 kHz
C. 47.3 kHz
D. 16.5 kHz

A5E03 (C) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
A. 211 kHz
B. 16.5 kHz
C. 47.3 kHz
D. 21.1 kHz

A5E04 (D) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of 218?
A. 21.1 kHz
B. 27.9 kHz
C. 17 kHz
D. 58.7 kHz

A5E05 (A) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150?
A. 95 kHz
B. 10.5 kHz
C. 10.5 MHz
D. 17 kHz

A5E06 (D) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95?
A. 4.49 kHz
B. 44.9 kHz
C. 22.3 kHz
D. 222.6 kHz

A5E07 (B) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of 225?
A. 4.49 kHz
B. 44.9 kHz
C. 22.3 kHz
D. 223 kHz

A5E08 (A) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of 195?
A. 92.8 kHz
B. 10.8 kHz
C. 22.3 kHz
D. 44.9 kHz

A5E09 (C) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
A. 22.3 kHz
B. 76.2 kHz
C. 31.4 kHz
D. 10.8 kHz

A5E10 (C) 
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that
has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
A. 22.3 kHz
B. 10.8 kHz
C. 76.2 kHz
D. 13.1 kHz

A5E11 (B) 
What term describes the frequency range over which the circuit
response is no more than 3 dB below the peak response?
A. Resonance
B. Half-power bandwidth
C. Circuit Q
D. 2:1 bandwidth

A5F  Circuit Q

A5F01 (A) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
14.128 MHz, L is 2.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms?
A. 75.1
B. 7.51
C. 71.5
D. 0.013

A5F02 (B) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
14.128 MHz, L is 4.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms?
A. 4.31
B. 43.1
C. 13.3
D. 0.023

A5F03 (C) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
4.468 MHz, L is 47 microhenrys and R is 180 ohms?
A. 0.00735
B. 7.35
C. 0.136
D. 13.3

A5F04 (D) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
14.225 MHz, L is 3.5 microhenrys and R is 10 kilohms?
A. 7.35
B. 0.0319
C. 71.5
D. 31.9

A5F05 (D) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
7.125 MHz, L is 8.2 microhenrys and R is 1 kilohm?
A. 36.8
B. 0.273
C. 0.368
D. 2.73

A5F06 (A) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
7.125 MHz, L is 10.1 microhenrys and R is 100 ohms?
A. 0.221
B. 4.52
C. 0.00452
D. 22.1

A5F07 (B) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
7.125 MHz, L is 12.6 microhenrys and R is 22 kilohms?
A. 22.1
B. 39
C. 25.6
D. 0.0256

A5F08 (B) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
3.625 MHz, L is 3 microhenrys and R is 2.2 kilohms?
A. 0.031
B. 32.2
C. 31.1
D. 25.6

A5F09 (D) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
3.625 MHz, L is 42 microhenrys and R is 220 ohms?
A. 23
B. 0.00435
C. 4.35
D. 0.23

A5F10 (A) 
What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is
3.625 MHz, L is 43 microhenrys and R is 1.8 kilohms?
A. 1.84
B. 0.543
C. 54.3
D. 23

A5F11 (C) 
Why is a resistor often included in a parallel resonant circuit?
A. To increase the Q and decrease the skin effect
B. To decrease the Q and increase the resonant frequency
C. To decrease the Q and increase the bandwidth
D. To increase the Q and decrease the bandwidth

A5G  Phase angle between voltage and current

A5G01 (A) 
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL
is 100 ohms?
A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current

A5G02 (B) 
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL
is 50 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

A5G03 (C) 
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and
XL is 250 ohms?
A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

A5G04 (B) 
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL
is 100 ohms?
A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

A5G05 (D) 
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL
is 25 ohms?
A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

A5G06 (C) 
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL
is 50 ohms?
A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

A5G07 (A) 
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
XL is 75 ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

A5G08 (D) 
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and
XL is 500 ohms?
A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current

A5G09 (D) 
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL
is 75 ohms?
A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

A5G10 (D) 
What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage
across a capacitor?
A. Voltage and current are in phase
B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

A5G11 (A) 
What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and
the voltage across an inductor?
A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D. Voltage and current are in phase

A5H  Reactive power; power factor

A5H01 (A) 
What is reactive power?
A. Wattless, nonproductive power
B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage
D. Power consumed in circuit Q

A5H02 (D) 
What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associated
with inductors and capacitors?
A. Effective power
B. True power
C. Peak envelope power
D. Reactive power

A5H03 (B) 
In a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors, what happens to
reactive power?
A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
B. It goes back and forth between magnetic and electric fields, but is
not dissipated
C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive
fields

A5H04 (A) 
In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how
can the true power be determined?
A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor
C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current

A5H05 (C) 
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase
angle between the voltage and the current?
A. 1.414
B. 0.866
C. 0.5
D. 1.73

A5H06 (D) 
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase
angle between the voltage and the current?
A. 0.866
B. 1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.707

A5H07 (C) 
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase
angle between the voltage and the current?
A. 1.73
B. 0.5
C. 0.866
D. 0.577

A5H08 (B) 
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2
if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
A. 400 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 2000 watts
D. 50 watts

A5H09 (D) 
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6
if the input is 200-V AC at 5 amperes?
A. 200 watts
B. 1000 watts
C. 1600 watts
D. 600 watts

A5H10 (B) 
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71
if the apparent power is 500 watts?
A. 704 W
B. 355 W
C. 252 W
D. 1.42 mW

A5H11 (A) 
Why would the power used in a circuit be less than the product of the
magnitudes of the AC voltage and current?
A. Because there is a phase angle greater than zero between the
current and voltage
B. Because there are only resistances in the circuit
C. Because there are no reactances in the circuit
D. Because there is a phase angle equal to zero between the current
and voltage

A5I  Effective radiated power, system gains and losses

A5I01 (B) 
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50
watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 2-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
A. 199 watts
B. 39.7 watts
C. 45 watts
D. 62.9 watts
 
A5I02 (C) 
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50
watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
A. 79.2 watts
B. 315 watts
C. 31.5 watts
D. 40.5 watts
 
A5I03 (D) 
What is the effective radiated power of a station with 75 watts
transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
A. 600 watts
B. 75 watts
C. 150 watts
D. 299 watts
 
A5I04 (A) 
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 75
watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? 
A. 37.6 watts
B. 237 watts
C. 150 watts
D. 23.7 watts
 
A5I05 (D) 
What is the effective radiated power of a station with 100 watts
transmitter power output, 1-dB feed line loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
A. 350 watts
B. 500 watts
C. 20 watts
D. 316 watts
 
A5I06 (B) 
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 100
watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
A. 794 watts
B. 126 watts
C. 79.4 watts
D. 1260 watts
 
A5I07 (C) 
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 120
watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexer
loss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?
A. 601 watts
B. 240 watts
C. 60 watts
D. 79 watts
 
A5I08 (D) 
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150
watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexer
loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
A. 1977 watts
B. 78.7 watts
C. 420 watts
D. 286 watts
 
A5I09 (A) 
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200
watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer
loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
A. 317 watts
B. 2000 watts
C. 126 watts
D. 300 watts 

A5I10 (B) 
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200
watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer
loss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? 
A. 159 watts
B. 252 watts
C. 632 watts
D. 63.2 watts
 
A5I11 (C) 
What term describes station output (including the transmitter, antenna
and everything in between), when considering transmitter power and
system gains and losses?
A. Power factor
B. Half-power bandwidth
C. Effective radiated power
D. Apparent power

A5J  Replacement of voltage source and resistive voltage divider with
equivalent voltage source and one resistor (Thevenin's Theorem)

A5J01 (B) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8
kilohms?
A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
B. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
C. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
D. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts

A5J02 (C) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8
kilohms?
A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
B. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
C. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts
D. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts

A5J03 (A) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16
kilohms?
A. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
B. R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
C. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
D. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts

A5J04 (D) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?
A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
B. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
C. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
D. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts

A5J05 (C) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?
A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts

A5J06 (A) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20
kilohms?
A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts

A5J07 (B) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?
A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
B. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
C. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts

A5J08 (B) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10
kilohms?
A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
B. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
C. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
D. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts

A5J09 (C) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20
kilohms?
A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
B. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
D. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts

A5J10 (A) 
In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltage
and current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20
kilohms?
A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
B. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
C. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
D. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts

A5J11 (D) 
What circuit principle describes the replacement of any complex two-
terminal network of voltage sources and resistances with a single
voltage source and a single resistor?
A. Ohm's Law
B. Kirchhoff's Law
C. Laplace's Theorem
D. Thevenin's Theorem

A6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 questions - 6 groups]

A6A  Semiconductor material: Germanium, Silicon, P-type, N-type

A6A01 (B) 
What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both
metallic and nonmetallic characteristics?
A. Silicon and gold
B. Silicon and germanium
C. Galena and germanium
D. Galena and bismuth

A6A02 (C) 
In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor
material in preference to germanium or silicon?
A. In bipolar transistors
B. In high-power circuits
C. At microwave frequencies
D. At very low frequencies

A6A03 (C) 
What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some
antimony atoms to germanium crystals?
A. J-type
B. MOS-type
C. N-type
D. P-type

A6A04 (B) 
What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some
gallium atoms to silicon crystals?
A. N-type
B. P-type
C. MOS-type
D. J-type

A6A05 (A) 
What type of semiconductor material contains more free electrons than
pure germanium or silicon crystals?
A. N-type
B. P-type
C. Bipolar
D. Insulated gate

A6A06 (A) 
What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some
arsenic atoms to silicon crystals?
A. N-type
B. P-type
C. MOS-type
D. J-type

A6A07 (D) 
What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding some
indium atoms to germanium crystals?
A. J-type
B. MOS-type
C. N-type
D. P-type

A6A08 (B) 
What type of semiconductor material contains fewer free electrons than
pure germanium or silicon crystals?
A. N-type
B. P-type
C. Superconductor-type
D. Bipolar-type

A6A09 (C) 
What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor
material?
A. Free neutrons
B. Free protons
C. Holes
D. Free electrons

A6A10 (B) 
What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor
material?
A. Holes
B. Free electrons
C. Free protons
D. Free neutrons

A6A11 (B) 
What is the name given to an impurity atom that provides excess
electrons to a semiconductor crystal structure?
A. Acceptor impurity
B. Donor impurity
C. P-type impurity
D. Conductor impurity

A6A12 (C) 
What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a
semiconductor crystal structure?
A. Insulator impurity
B. N-type impurity
C. Acceptor impurity
D. Donor impurity

A6B  Diodes: Zener, Tunnel, Varactor, Hot-carrier, Junction, Point
     contact, PIN and Light-emitting

A6B01 (B) 
What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?
A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage
B. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current
C. A negative resistance region
D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

A6B02 (D) 
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3

A6B03 (C) 
What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
A. A high forward resistance
B. A very high PIV
C. A negative resistance region
D. A high forward current rating

A6B04 (C) 
What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and
oscillation?
A. Point contact
B. Zener
C. Tunnel
D. Junction

A6B05 (C) 
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 1

A6B06 (A) 
What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as
the voltage applied to its terminals varies?
A. Varactor
B. Tunnel
C. Silicon-controlled rectifier
D. Zener

A6B07 (D) 
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 1

A6B08 (D) 
What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
A. As balanced mixers in FM generation
B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
C. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
D. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors

A6B09 (B) 
What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?
A. Peak inverse voltage
B. Junction temperature
C. Forward voltage
D. Back EMF

A6B10 (D) 
How are junction diodes rated?
A. Maximum forward current and capacitance
B. Maximum reverse current and PIV
C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance
D. Maximum forward current and PIV

A6B11 (A) 
Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor
diodes?
A. Junction and point contact
B. Electrolytic and junction
C. Electrolytic and point contact
D. Vacuum and point contact

A6B12 (C) 
What is a common use for point contact diodes?
A. As a constant current source
B. As a constant voltage source
C. As an RF detector
D. As a high voltage rectifier

A6B13 (D) 
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a semiconductor
diode/rectifier?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A6B14 (C) 
What is one common use for PIN diodes?
A. As a constant current source
B. As a constant voltage source
C. As an RF switch
D. As a high voltage rectifier

A6B15 (B) 
In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting
diode?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

A6B16 (B) 
What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?
A. Reverse bias
B. Forward bias
C. Zero bias
D. Inductive bias

A6C Toroids: Permeability, core material, selecting, winding

A6C01 (D) 
What material property determines the inductance of a toroidal
inductor with a 10-turn winding?
A. Core load current
B. Core resistance
C. Core reactivity
D. Core permeability

A6C02 (B) 
By careful selection of core material, over what frequency range can
toroidal cores produce useful inductors?
A. From a few kHz to no more than several MHz
B. From DC to at least 1000 MHz
C. From DC to no more than 3000 kHz
D. From a few hundred MHz to at least 1000 GHz

A6C03 (A) 
What materials are used to make ferromagnetic inductors and
transformers?
A. Ferrite and powdered-iron toroids
B. Silicon-ferrite toroids and shellac
C. Powdered-ferrite and silicon toroids
D. Ferrite and silicon-epoxy toroids

A6C04 (B) 
What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather
than ferrite toroids in an inductor?
A. Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeabilities
B. Powdered-iron toroids generally have better temperature stability
C. Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a
given inductance value
D. Powdered-iron toroids are easier to use with surface-mount
technology

A6C05 (C) 
What is one important reason for using ferrite toroids rather than
powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
B. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
C. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given
inductance value
D. Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface-mount technology

A6C06 (B) 
What would be a good choice of toroid core material to make a
common-mode choke (such as winding telephone wires or stereo speaker
leads on a core) to cure an HF RFI problem?
A. Type 61 mix ferrite (initial permeability of 125)
B. Type 43 mix ferrite (initial permeability of 850)
C. Type 6 mix powdered iron (initial permeability of 8)
D. Type 12 mix powdered iron (initial permeability of 3)

A6C07 (C) 
What devices are commonly used as parasitic suppressors at the input
and output terminals of VHF and UHF amplifiers?
A. Electrolytic capacitors
B. Butterworth filters
C. Ferrite beads
D. Steel-core toroids

A6C08 (A) 
What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a
linear core in an inductor?
A. Toroidal cores contain most of the magnetic field within the core
material
B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into
other components
C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

A6C09 (D) 
What is a bifilar-wound toroid?
A. An inductor that has two cores taped together to double the
inductance value
B. An inductor wound on a core with two holes (binocular core)
C. A transformer designed to provide a 2-to-1 impedance transformation
D. An inductor that uses a pair of wires to place two windings on the
core

A6C10 (C) 
How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a
ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A sub L) value of
523?
A. 2 turns
B. 4 turns
C. 43 turns
D. 229 turns

A6C11 (A) 
How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor
using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A
sub L) value of 40?
A. 35 turns
B. 13 turns
C. 79 turns
D. 141 turns

A6D  Transistor types: NPN, PNP, Junction, Unijunction

A6D01 (B) 
What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?
A. Cathode, plate and grid
B. Base, collector and emitter
C. Gate, source and sink
D. Input, output and ground

A6D02 (C) 
What is the alpha of a bipolar transistor?
A. The change of collector current with respect to base current
B. The change of base current with respect to collector current
C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current

A6D03 (A) 
What is the beta of a bipolar transistor?
A. The change of collector current with respect to base current
B. The change of base current with respect to emitter current
C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
D. The change of base current with respect to gate current

A6D04 (D) 
What is the alpha cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor?
A. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common
emitter configuration
B. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common
emitter configuration
C. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base
configuration
D. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base
configuration

A6D05 (B) 
In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

A6D06 (A) 
In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5

A6D07 (D) 
What term indicates the frequency at which a transistor grounded base
current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
A. Corner frequency
B. Alpha rejection frequency
C. Beta cutoff frequency
D. Alpha cutoff frequency

A6D08 (B) 
What does the beta cutoff of a bipolar transistor indicate?
A. The frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased
to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz
B. The frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has
decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz
C. The frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has
decreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz
D. The frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreased
to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz

A6D09 (A) 
What is the transition region of a transistor?
A. An area of low charge density around the P-N junction
B. The area of maximum P-type charge
C. The area of maximum N-type charge
D. The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-type
material

A6D10 (A) 
What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?
A. The collector current is at its maximum value
B. The collector current is at its minimum value
C. The transistor alpha is at its maximum value
D. The transistor beta is at its maximum value

A6D11 (C) 
What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off?
A. There is no base current
B. The transistor is at its operating point
C. No current flows from emitter to collector
D. Maximum current flows from emitter to collector

A6D12 (D) 
In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a unijunction
transistor?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

A6D13 (C) 
What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?
A. Gate, base 1 and base 2
B. Gate, cathode and anode
C. Base 1, base 2 and emitter
D. Gate, source and sink

A6E  Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR); Triac; neon lamp

A6E01 (B) 
What are the three terminals of a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?
A. Gate, source and sink
B. Anode, cathode and gate
C. Base, collector and emitter
D. Gate, base 1 and base 2

A6E02 (A) 
What are the two stable operating conditions of a silicon controlled
rectifier (SCR)?
A. Conducting and nonconducting
B. Oscillating and quiescent
C. Forward conducting and reverse conducting
D. NPN conduction and PNP conduction

A6E03 (A) 
When a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is triggered, to what other
solid-state device are its electrical characteristics similar (as
measured between its cathode and anode)?
A. The junction diode
B. The tunnel diode
C. The hot-carrier diode
D. The varactor diode

A6E04 (D) 
Under what operating conditions does a silicon controlled rectifier
(SCR) exhibit electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased
silicon rectifier?
A. During a switching transition
B. When it is used as a detector
C. When it is gated "off"
D. When it is gated "on"

A6E05 (C) 
In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlled
rectifier (SCR)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6

A6E06 (B) 
What is the name of the device that is fabricated as two complementary
silicon controlled rectifiers (SCRs) in parallel with a common gate
terminal?
A. Bilateral SCR
B. TRIAC
C. Unijunction transistor
D. Field-effect transistor

A6E07 (B) 
What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
A. Emitter, base 1 and base 2
B. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
C. Base, emitter and collector
D. Gate, source and sink

A6E08 (A) 
In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5

A6E09 (D) 
What will happen to a neon lamp in the presence of RF?
A. It will glow only in the presence of very high frequency radio
energy
B. It will change color
C. It will glow only in the presence of very low frequency radio
energy
D. It will glow

A6E10 (C) 
If an NE-2 neon bulb is to be used as a dial lamp with a 120 V AC
line, what additional component must be connected to it?
A. A 150-pF capacitor in parallel with the bulb
B. A 10-mH inductor in series with the bulb
C. A 150-kilohm resistor in series with the bulb
D. A 10-kilohm resistor in parallel with the bulb

A6E11 (C) 
In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A6F  Quartz crystal (frequency determining properties as used in
oscillators and filters); monolithic amplifiers (MMICs)

A6F01 (B) 
For single-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a
good crystal lattice band-pass filter?
A. 6 kHz at -6 dB
B. 2.1 kHz at -6 dB
C. 500 Hz at -6 dB
D. 15 kHz at -6 dB

A6F02 (C) 
For double-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of a
good crystal lattice band-pass filter?
A. 1 kHz at -6 dB
B. 500 Hz at -6 dB
C. 6 kHz at -6 dB
D. 15 kHz at -6 dB

A6F03 (D) 
What is a crystal lattice filter?
A. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
B. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-
kHz intervals
C. A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz
crystals
D. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz
crystals

A6F04 (D) 
What technique is used to construct low-cost, high-performance crystal
filters?
A. Choose a center frequency that matches the available crystals
B. Choose a crystal with the desired bandwidth and operating frequency
to match a desired center frequency
C. Measure crystal bandwidth to ensure at least 20% coupling
D. Measure crystal frequencies and carefully select units with less
than 10% frequency difference

A6F05 (A) 
Which factor helps determine the bandwidth and response shape of a
crystal filter?
A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
B. The center frequency chosen for the filter
C. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter

A6F06 (A) 
What is the piezoelectric effect?
A. Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a
magnetic field
C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

A6F07 (C) 
Which of the following devices would be most suitable for constructing
a receive preamplifier for 1296 MHz?
A. A 2N2222 bipolar transistor
B. An MRF901 bipolar transistor
C. An MSA-0135 monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)
D. An MPF102 N-junction field-effect transistor (JFET)

A6F08 (A) 
Which device might be used to simplify the design and construction of
a 3456-MHz receiver?
A. An MSA-0735 monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC).
B. An MRF901 bipolar transistor
C. An MGF1402 gallium arsenide field-effect transistor (GaAsFET)
D. An MPF102 N-junction field-effect transistor (JFET)

A6F09 (D) 
What type of amplifier device consists of a small "pill sized" package
with an input lead, an output lead and 2 ground leads?
A. A gallium arsenide field-effect transistor (GaAsFET)
B. An operational amplifier integrated circuit (OAIC)
C. An indium arsenide integrated circuit (IAIC)
D. A monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)

A6F10 (B) 
What typical construction technique do amateurs use when building an
amplifier containing a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
A. Ground-plane "ugly" construction
B. Microstrip construction
C. Point-to-point construction
D. Wave-soldering construction

A6F11 (A) 
How is the operating bias voltage supplied to a monolithic microwave
integrated circuit (MMIC)?
A. Through a resistor and RF choke connected to the amplifier output
lead
B. MMICs require no operating bias
C. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input
lead
D. Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead

A7 - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [10 questions - 10 groups]

A7A  Amplifier circuits: Class A, Class AB, Class B, Class C,
amplifier operating efficiency (i.e., DC input vs. PEP); transmitter
final amplifiers

A7A01 (B) 
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class A amplifier operate?
A. Less than 180 degrees
B. The entire cycle
C. More than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees
D. Exactly 180 degrees

A7A02 (A) 
Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least
distortion?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class AB


A7A03 (A) 
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
B. Exactly 180 degrees
C. The entire cycle
D. Less than 180 degrees

A7A04 (D) 
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class B amplifier operate?
A. The entire cycle
B. Greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees
C. Less than 180 degrees
D. 180 degrees

A7A05 (A) 
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class C amplifier operate?
A. Less than 180 degrees
B. Exactly 180 degrees
C. The entire cycle
D. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees

A7A06 (C) 
Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class AB

A7A07 (A) 
Where on the load line should a solid-state power amplifier be
operated for best efficiency and stability?
A. Just below the saturation point
B. Just above the saturation point
C. At the saturation point
D. At 1.414 times the saturation point

A7A08 (A) 
What is the formula for the efficiency of a power amplifier?
A. Efficiency = (RF power out / DC power in) x 100%
B. Efficiency = (RF power in / RF power out) x 100%
C. Efficiency = (RF power in / DC power in) x 100%
D. Efficiency = (DC power in / RF power in) x 100%

A7A09 (C) 
How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated from a power amplifier?
A. By tuning for maximum SWR
B. By tuning for maximum power output
C. By neutralization
D. By tuning the output

A7A10 (D) 
What is the procedure for tuning a vacuum-tube power amplifier having
an output pi-network?
A. Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip
the plate current with the tuning capacitor
B. Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning capacitor
and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor
C. Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the
plate current with the loading capacitor
D. Alternately increase the plate current with the loading capacitor
and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor

A7A11 (B) 
How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter
amplifiers?
A. By using a push-push amplifier
B. By using a push-pull amplifier
C. By operating Class C
D. By operating Class AB

A7A12 (D) 
What can occur when a nonlinear amplifier is used with a single-
sideband phone transmitter?
A. Reduced amplifier efficiency
B. Increased intelligibility
C. Sideband inversion
D. Distortion

A7B  Amplifier circuits: tube, bipolar transistor, FET

A7B01 (C) 
How can a vacuum-tube power amplifier be neutralized?
A. By increasing the grid drive
B. By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input
C. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the
input
D. By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the
output

A7B02 (B) 
What is the flywheel effect?
A. The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the
transmitter is turned off
B. The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit
C. The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified AC
D. The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several
hops through the ionosphere

A7B03 (B) 
What tank-circuit Q is required to reduce harmonics to an acceptable
level?
A. Approximately 120
B. Approximately 12
C. Approximately 1200
D. Approximately 1.2

A7B04 (C) 
What type of circuit is shown in Figure A7-1?
A. Switching voltage regulator
B. Linear voltage regulator
C. Common emitter amplifier
D. Emitter follower amplifier

A7B05 (B) 
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
A. Load resistors
B. Fixed bias
C. Self bias
D. Feedback

A7B06 (D) 
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of C1?
A. Decoupling
B. Output coupling
C. Self bias
D. Input coupling

A7B07 (D) 
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of C3?
A. AC feedback
B. Input coupling
C. Power supply decoupling
D. Emitter bypass

A7B08 (D) 
In Figure A7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
A. Fixed bias
B. Emitter bypass
C. Output load resistor
D. Self bias

A7B09 (B) 
What type of circuit is shown in Figure A7-2?
A. High-gain amplifier
B. Common-collector amplifier
C. Linear voltage regulator
D. Grounded-emitter amplifier

A7B10 (A) 
In Figure A7-2, what is the purpose of R?
A. Emitter load
B. Fixed bias
C. Collector load
D. Voltage regulation

A7B11 (D) 
In Figure A7-2, what is the purpose of C1?
A. Input coupling
B. Output coupling
C. Emitter bypass
D. Collector bypass

A7B12 (A) 
In Figure A7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
A. Output coupling
B. Emitter bypass
C. Input coupling
D. Hum filtering

A7B13 (C) 
What type of circuit is shown in Figure A7-3?
A. Switching voltage regulator
B. Grounded emitter amplifier
C. Linear voltage regulator
D. Emitter follower

A7B14 (B) 
What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. Line voltage stabilization
B. Voltage reference
C. Peak clipping
D. Hum filtering

A7B15 (C) 
What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. It increases the output ripple
B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
C. It increases the current-handling capability
D. It provides D1 with current

A7B16 (D) 
What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. It resonates at the ripple frequency
B. It provides fixed bias for Q1
C. It decouples the output
D. It filters the supply voltage

A7B17 (A) 
What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. It bypasses hum around D1
B. It is a brute force filter for the output
C. To self resonate at the hum frequency
D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1

A7B18 (A) 
What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. It prevents self-oscillation
B. It provides brute force filtering of the output
C. It provides fixed bias for Q1
D. It clips the peaks of the ripple

A7B19 (C) 
What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. It provides a constant load to the voltage source
B. It couples hum to D1
C. It supplies current to D1
D. It bypasses hum around D1

A7B20 (D) 
What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit shown in Figure A7-3?
A. It provides fixed bias for Q1
B. It provides fixed bias for D1
C. It decouples hum from D1
D. It provides a constant minimum load for Q1

A7C  Impedance-matching networks: Pi, L, Pi-L

A7C01 (D) 
What is a pi-network?
A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors
B. A Power Incidence network
C. An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground
D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two
inductors and one capacitor

A7C02 (B) 
Which type of network offers the greater transformation ratio?
A. L-network
B. Pi-network
C. Constant-K
D. Constant-M

A7C03 (D) 
How are the capacitors and inductors of a pi-network arranged between
the network's input and output?
A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output and a
capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an
inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
C. An inductor is in parallel with the input, another inductor is in
parallel with the output, and a capacitor is in series between the two
D. A capacitor is in parallel with the input, another capacitor is in
parallel with the output, and an inductor is in series between the two

A7C04 (B) 
What is an L-network?
A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors
B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor
C. A network used to generate a leading phase angle
D. A network used to generate a lagging phase angle

A7C05 (A) 
Why is an L-network of limited utility in impedance matching?
A. It matches a small impedance range
B. It has limited power-handling capabilities
C. It is thermally unstable
D. It is prone to self resonance

A7C06 (B) 
What is a pi-L-network?
A. A Phase Inverter Load network
B. A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors
C. A network with only three discrete parts
D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

A7C07 (C) 
A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel (shunt) inductor has
which of the following properties?
A. It transforms impedances and is a low-pass filter
B. It transforms reactances and is a low-pass filter
C. It transforms impedances and is a high-pass filter
D. It transforms reactances and is a high-pass filter

A7C08 (A) 
What advantage does a pi-L-network have over a pi-network for
impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type
transmitter and a multiband antenna?
A. Greater harmonic suppression
B. Higher efficiency
C. Lower losses
D. Greater transformation range

A7C09 (C) 
Which type of network provides the greatest harmonic suppression?
A. L-network
B. Pi-network
C. Pi-L-network
D. Inverse-Pi network

A7C10 (C) 
Which three types of networks are most commonly used to match an
amplifying device and a transmission line?
A. M, pi and T
B. T, M and Q
C. L, pi and pi-L
D. L, M and C

A7C11 (C) 
How does a network transform one impedance to another?
A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of
an impedance
B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of an
impedance
C. It cancels the reactive part of an impedance and changes the
resistive part
D. Network resistances substitute for load resistances

A7D  Filter circuits: constant K, M-derived, band-stop, notch, crystal
lattice, Pi-section, T-section, L-section, Butterworth, Chebyshev,
elliptical

A7D01 (A) 
What are the three general groupings of filters?
A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass
B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive
C. Audio, radio and capacitive
D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce

A7D02 (B) 
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 20-microhenry
inductor to resonate in the 80-meter band?
A. 150 picofarads
B. 100 picofarads
C. 200 picofarads
D. 100 microfarads

A7D03 (D) 
What value inductor would be required to tune a 100-picofarad
capacitor to resonate in the 40-meter band?
A. 200 microhenrys
B. 150 microhenrys
C. 5 millihenrys
D. 5 microhenrys

A7D04 (A) 
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 2-microhenry inductor
to resonate in the 20-meter band?
A. 64 picofarads
B. 6 picofarads
C. 12 picofarads
D. 88 microfarads

A7D05 (C) 
What value inductor would be required to tune a 15-picofarad capacitor
to resonate in the 15-meter band?
A. 2 microhenrys
B. 30 microhenrys
C. 4 microhenrys
D. 15 microhenrys

A7D06 (A) 
What value capacitor would be required to tune a 100-microhenry
inductor to resonate in the 160-meter band?
A. 78 picofarads
B. 25 picofarads
C. 405 picofarads
D. 40.5 microfarads

A7D07 (C) 
What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter?
A. The product of its series- and shunt-element impedances is a
constant for all frequencies
B. It only requires capacitors
C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband
D. It requires only inductors

A7D08 (B) 
What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter?
A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband
B. It allows ripple in the passband
C. It only requires inductors
D. The product of its series- and shunt-element impedances is a
constant for all frequencies

A7D09 (D) 
Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a
sharp cutoff?
A. A Butterworth filter
B. An active LC filter
C. A passive op-amp filter
D. A Chebyshev filter

A7D10 (C) 
What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?
A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple
B. Extremely flat response over its passband, with gradually rounded
stop-band corners
C. Extremely sharp cutoff, with one or more infinitely deep notches in
the stop band
D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple

A7D11 (B) 
Which filter type has an extremely sharp cutoff, with one or more
infinitely deep notches in the stop band?
A. Chebyshev
B. Elliptical
C. Butterworth
D. Crystal lattice

A7E  Voltage-regulator circuits: discrete, integrated and switched
mode

A7E01 (D) 
What is one characteristic of a linear electronic voltage regulator?
A. It has a ramp voltage as its output
B. The pass transistor switches from the "off" state to the "on" state
C. The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle
proportional to the line or load conditions
D. The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion
to the line voltage or load current

A7E02 (C) 
What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage
regulator?
A. The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion
to the line voltage or load current
B. It provides more than one output voltage
C. The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle
proportional to the line or load conditions
D. It gives a ramp voltage at its output

A7E03 (A) 
What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a
linear voltage regulator?
A. A Zener diode
B. A tunnel diode
C. An SCR
D. A varactor diode

A7E04 (B) 
What type of linear regulator is used in applications requiring
efficient utilization of the primary power source?
A. A constant current source
B. A series regulator
C. A shunt regulator
D. A shunt current source

A7E05 (D) 
What type of linear voltage regulator is used in applications
requiring a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?
A. A constant current source
B. A series regulator
C. A shunt current source
D. A shunt regulator

A7E06 (C) 
To obtain the best temperature stability, approximately what operating
voltage should be used for the reference diode in a linear voltage
regulator?
A. 2 volts
B. 3 volts
C. 6 volts
D. 10 volts

A7E07 (A) 
How is remote sensing accomplished in a linear voltage regulator?
A. A feedback connection to an error amplifier is made directly to the
load
B. By wireless inductive loops
C. A load connection is made outside the feedback loop
D. An error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference
voltage

A7E08 (D) 
What is a three-terminal regulator?
A. A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current
B. A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current
C. A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing
transistors
D. A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier,
sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element

A7E09 (B) 
What are the important characteristics of a three-terminal regulator?
A. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and
voltage
B. Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and
voltage
C. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and
maximum output voltage
D. Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and
maximum output current

A7E10 (A) 
What type of voltage regulator limits the voltage drop across its
junction when a specified current passes through it in the reverse-
breakdown direction?
A. A Zener diode
B. A three-terminal regulator
C. A bipolar regulator
D. A pass-transistor regulator

A7E11 (C) 
What type of voltage regulator contains a voltage reference, error
amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element in
one package?
A. A switching regulator
B. A Zener regulator
C. A three-terminal regulator
D. An op-amp regulator

A7F  Oscillators: types, applications, stability

A7F01 (D) 
What are three major oscillator circuits often used in Amateur Radio
equipment?
A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
B. Colpitts, Hartley and Taft
C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

A7F02 (C) 
What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?
A. It must have a gain of less than 1
B. It must be neutralized
C. It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses
D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input

A7F03 (A) 
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Hartley
oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through a capacitive divider
C. Through link coupling
D. Through a neutralizing capacitor

A7F04 (C) 
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Colpitts
oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through link coupling
C. Through a capacitive divider
D. Through a neutralizing capacitor

A7F05 (D) 
How is the positive feedback coupled to the input in a Pierce
oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through link coupling
C. Through a neutralizing capacitor
D. Through capacitive coupling

A7F06 (D) 
Which of the three major oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio
equipment uses a quartz crystal?
A. Negative feedback
B. Hartley
C. Colpitts
D. Pierce

A7F07 (B) 
What is the major advantage of a Pierce oscillator?
A. It is easy to neutralize
B. It doesn't require an LC tank circuit
C. It can be tuned over a wide range
D. It has a high output power

A7F08 (B) 
Which type of oscillator circuits are commonly used in a VFO?
A. Pierce and Zener
B. Colpitts and Hartley
C. Armstrong and deForest
D. Negative feedback and Balanced feedback

A7F09 (C) 
Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO?
A. The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance
B. It can be used with or without crystal lock-in
C. It is stable
D. It has high output power

A7F10 (A) 
What component is often used to control an oscillator frequency by
varying a control voltage?
A. A varactor diode
B. A piezoelectric crystal
C. A Zener diode
D. A Pierce crystal

A7F11 (B) 
Why must a very stable reference oscillator be used as part of a
phase-locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?
A. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will
prevent the loop from locking to the desired signal
B. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will
produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
C. Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will
produce harmonic distortion in the modulating signal
D. Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will
prevent the loop from changing frequency

A7G  Modulators: Reactance, Phase, Balanced

A7G01 (D) 
What is meant by modulation?
A. The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio
is reached
B. Carrier rejection through phase nulling
C. A linear amplification mode
D. A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier

A7G02 (B) 
How is an F3E FM-phone emission produced?
A. With a balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
B. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator
C. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier
D. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator

A7G03 (C) 
How does a reactance modulator work?
A. It acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce FM
signals
B. It acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to produce AM
signals
C. It acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce FM
signals
D. It acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to produce AM
signals

A7G04 (B) 
What type of circuit varies the tuning of an oscillator circuit to
produce FM signals?
A. A balanced modulator
B. A reactance modulator
C. A double balanced mixer
D. An audio modulator

A7G05 (C) 
How does a phase modulator work?
A. It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce FM
signals
B. It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM
signals
C. It varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce FM
signals
D. It varies the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM
signals

A7G06 (C) 
What type of circuit varies the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to
produce FM signals?
A. A balanced modulator
B. A double balanced mixer
C. A phase modulator
D. An audio modulator

A7G07 (B) 
What type of signal does a balanced modulator produce?
A. FM with balanced deviation
B. Double sideband, suppressed carrier
C. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
D. Full carrier

A7G08 (A) 
How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated?
A. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal

A7G09 (D) 
How can a double-sideband phone signal be generated?
A. By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low-pass filter
B. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
C. By detuning a Hartley oscillator
D. By modulating the plate voltage of a Class C amplifier

A7G10 (D) 
What audio shaping network is added at a transmitter to proportionally
attenuate the lower audio frequencies, giving an even spread to the
energy in the audio band?
A. A de-emphasis network
B. A heterodyne suppressor
C. An audio prescaler
D. A pre-emphasis network

A7G11 (A) 
What audio shaping network is added at a receiver to restore
proportionally attenuated lower audio frequencies?
A. A de-emphasis network
B. A heterodyne suppressor
C. An audio prescaler
D. A pre-emphasis network

A7H  Detectors; filter applications (audio, IF, Digital signal
processing {DSP})

A7H01 (B) 
What is the process of detection?
A. The masking of the intelligence on a received carrier
B. The recovery of the intelligence from a modulated RF signal
C. The modulation of a carrier
D. The mixing of noise with a received signal

A7H02 (A) 
What is the principle of detection in a diode detector?
A. Rectification and filtering of RF
B. Breakdown of the Zener voltage
C. Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode
D. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

A7H03 (C) 
What does a product detector do?
A. It provides local oscillations for input to a mixer
B. It amplifies and narrows band-pass frequencies
C. It mixes an incoming signal with a locally generated carrier
D. It detects cross-modulation products

A7H04 (B) 
How are FM-phone signals detected?
A. With a balanced modulator
B. With a frequency discriminator
C. With a product detector
D. With a phase splitter

A7H05 (D) 
What is a frequency discriminator?
A. An FM generator
B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
C. An automatic band-switching circuit
D. A circuit for detecting FM signals

A7H06 (A) 
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using active filters
rather than L-C filters at audio frequencies?
A. Active filters have higher signal-to-noise ratios
B. Active filters can provide gain as well as frequency selection
C. Active filters do not require the use of inductors
D. Active filters can use potentiometers for tuning

A7H07 (B) 
What kind of audio filter would you use to attenuate an interfering
carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A notch filter
C. A pi-network filter
D. An all-pass filter

A7H08 (D) 
What characteristic do typical SSB receiver IF filters lack that is
important to digital communications?
A. Steep amplitude-response skirts
B. Passband ripple
C. High input impedance
D. Linear phase response

A7H09 (A) 
What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to
remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
A. An adaptive filter
B. A notch filter
C. A Hilbert-transform filter
D. A phase-inverting filter

A7H10 (C) 
What kind of digital signal processing filter might be used in
generating an SSB signal?
A. An adaptive filter
B. A notch filter
C. A Hilbert-transform filter
D. An elliptical filter

A7H11 (B) 
Which type of filter would be the best to use in a 2-meter repeater
duplexer?
A. A crystal filter
B. A cavity filter
C. A DSP filter
D. An L-C filter

A7I  Mixer stages; Frequency synthesizers

A7I01 (D) 
What is the mixing process?
A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison
B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase
differentiation
C. The recovery of the intelligence from a modulated RF signal
D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference
frequencies

A7I02 (C) 
What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a
mixer circuit?
A. Two and four times the original frequency
B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies
D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

A7I03 (B) 
What are the advantages of the frequency-conversion process?
A. Automatic squelching and increased selectivity
B. Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design
C. Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching
D. Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased selectivity

A7I04 (A) 
What occurs in a receiver when an excessive amount of signal energy
reaches the mixer circuit?
A. Spurious mixer products are generated
B. Mixer blanking occurs
C. Automatic limiting occurs
D. A beat frequency is generated

A7I05 (C) 
What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a stable voltage-
controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase detector, loop
filter and a reference frequency source?
A. A direct digital synthesizer
B. A hybrid synthesizer
C. A phase-locked loop synthesizer
D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

A7I06 (A) 
What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator,
lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass antialias
filter?
A. A direct digital synthesizer
B. A hybrid synthesizer
C. A phase-locked loop synthesizer
D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

A7I07 (B) 
What are the main blocks of a phase-locked loop frequency synthesizer?
A. A variable-frequency crystal oscillator, programmable divider,
digital to analog converter and a loop filter
B. A stable voltage-controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase
detector, loop filter and a reference frequency source
C. A phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and
a low-pass antialias filter
D. A variable-frequency oscillator, programmable divider, phase
detector and a low-pass antialias filter

A7I08 (D) 
What are the main blocks of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?
A. A variable-frequency crystal oscillator, phase accumulator, digital
to analog converter and a loop filter
B. A stable voltage-controlled oscillator, programmable divider, phase
detector, loop filter and a digital to analog converter
C. A variable-frequency oscillator, programmable divider, phase
detector and a low-pass antialias filter
D. A phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and
a low-pass antialias filter

A7I09 (B) 
What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital
frequency synthesizer?
A. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the
output waveform
B. The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
C. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and
the output waveform
D. The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the
radio memories

A7I10 (C) 
What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital
synthesizers?
A. Broadband noise
B. Digital conversion noise
C. Spurs at discrete frequencies
D. Nyquist limit noise

A7I11 (A) 
What are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop
synthesizers?
A. Broadband noise
B. Digital conversion noise
C. Spurs at discrete frequencies
D. Nyquist limit noise

A7J  Amplifier applications: AF, IF, RF

A7J01 (B) 
For most amateur phone communications, what should be the upper
frequency limit of an audio amplifier?
A. No more than 1000 Hz
B. About 3000 Hz
C. At least 10,000 Hz
D. More than 20,000 Hz

A7J02 (A) 
What is the term for the ratio of the RMS voltage for all harmonics in
an audio-amplifier output to the total RMS voltage of the output for a
pure sine-wave input?
A. Total harmonic distortion
B. Maximum frequency deviation
C. Full quieting ratio
D. Harmonic signal ratio

A7J03 (D) 
What are the advantages of a Darlington pair audio amplifier?
A. Mutual gain, low input impedance and low output impedance
B. Low output impedance, high mutual inductance and low output current
C. Mutual gain, high stability and low mutual inductance
D. High gain, high input impedance and low output impedance

A7J04 (B) 
What is the purpose of a speech amplifier in an amateur phone
transmitter?
A. To increase the dynamic range of the audio
B. To raise the microphone audio output to the level required by the
modulator
C. To match the microphone impedance to the transmitter input
impedance
D. To provide adequate AGC drive to the transmitter

A7J05 (A) 
What is an IF amplifier stage?
A. A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier
B. A receiver demodulator
C. A receiver filter
D. A buffer oscillator

A7J06 (C) 
What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate
frequency?
A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference
B. Interference to other services
C. Image rejection and selectivity
D. Noise figure and distortion

A7J07 (D) 
Which of the following is a purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in
a receiver?
A. To improve noise figure performance
B. To tune out cross-modulation distortion
C. To increase the dynamic response
D. To provide selectivity

A7J08 (B) 
Which of the following is an important reason for using a VHF
intermediate frequency in an HF receiver?
A.  To provide a greater tuning range
B.  To move the image response far away from the filter passband
C.  To tune out cross-modulation distortion
D.  To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products

A7J09 (B) 
How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver?
A. As much gain as possible, short of self oscillation
B. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated
in the first mixer stage
C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first
mixer stage
D. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage

A7J10 (C) 
Why should the RF amplifier stage of a receiver have only sufficient
gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first
mixer stage?
A. To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated
B. To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal
C. To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products
D. To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator

A7J11 (A) 
What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver?
A. To improve the receiver noise figure
B. To vary the receiver image rejection by using the AGC
C. To provide most of the receiver gain
D. To develop the AGC voltage

A8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [6 questions - 6 groups]

A8A  FCC emission designators vs. emission types

A8A01 (A) 
What is emission A3C?
A. Facsimile
B. RTTY
C. ATV
D. Slow Scan TV

A8A02 (B) 
What type of emission is produced when an AM transmitter is modulated
by a facsimile signal?
A. A3F
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. F3C

A8A03 (C) 
What does a facsimile transmission produce?
A. Tone-modulated telegraphy
B. A pattern of printed characters designed to form a picture
C. Printed pictures by electrical means
D. Moving pictures by electrical means

A8A04 (D) 
What is emission F3C?
A. Voice transmission
B. Slow Scan TV
C. RTTY
D. Facsimile

A8A05 (A) 
What type of emission is produced when an FM transmitter is modulated
by a facsimile signal?
A. F3C
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. A3F

A8A06 (B) 
What is emission A3F?
A. RTTY
B. Television
C. SSB
D. Modulated CW

A8A07 (B) 
What type of emission is produced when an AM transmitter is modulated
by a television signal?
A. F3F
B. A3F
C. A3C
D. F3C

A8A08 (D) 
What is emission F3F?
A. Modulated CW
B. Facsimile
C. RTTY
D. Television

A8A09 (C) 
What type of emission is produced when an FM transmitter is modulated
by a television signal?
A. A3F
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. F3C

A8A10 (D) 
What type of emission is produced when an SSB transmitter is modulated
by a slow-scan television signal?
A. J3A
B. F3F
C. A3F
D. J3F

A8A11 (A) 
What emission is produced when an AM transmitter is modulated by a
single-channel signal containing digital information without the use
of a modulating subcarrier, resulting in telegraphy for aural
reception?
A. CW
B. RTTY
C. Data
D. MCW

A8B  Modulation symbols and transmission characteristics

A8B01 (A) 
What International Telecommunication Union (ITU) system describes the
characteristics and necessary bandwidth of any transmitted signal?
A. Emission Designators
B. Emission Zones
C. Band Plans
D. Modulation Indicators

A8B02 (C) 
Which of the following describe the three most-used symbols of an ITU
emission designator?
A. Type of modulation, transmitted bandwidth and modulation code
designator
B. Bandwidth of the modulating signal, nature of the modulating signal
and transmission rate of signals
C. Type of modulation, nature of the modulating signal and type of
information to be transmitted
D. Power of signal being transmitted, nature of multiplexing and
transmission speed

A8B03 (B) 
If the first symbol of an ITU emission designator is J, representing a
single-sideband, suppressed-carrier signal, what information about the
emission is described?
A. The nature of any signal multiplexing
B. The type of modulation of the main carrier
C. The maximum permissible bandwidth
D. The maximum signal level, in decibels

A8B04 (D) 
If the first symbol of an ITU emission designator is G, representing a
phase-modulated signal, what information about the emission is
described?
A. The nature of any signal multiplexing
B. The maximum permissible deviation
C. The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
D. The type of modulation of the main carrier

A8B05 (A) 
If the first symbol of an ITU emission designator is P, representing a
sequence of unmodulated pulses, what information about the emission is
described?
A. The type of modulation of the main carrier
B. The maximum permissible pulse width
C. The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
D. The nature of any signal multiplexing

A8B06 (A) 
If the second symbol of an ITU emission designator is 3, representing
a single channel containing analog information, what information about
the emission is described?
A. The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
B. The maximum permissible deviation
C. The maximum signal level, in decibels
D. The type of modulation of the main carrier

A8B07 (C) 
If the second symbol of an ITU emission designator is 1, representing
a single channel containing quantized, or digital information, what
information about the emission is described?
A. The maximum transmission rate, in bauds
B. The maximum permissible deviation
C. The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
D. The type of information to be transmitted

A8B08 (D) 
If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is D, representing
data transmission, telemetry or telecommand, what information about
the emission is described?
A. The maximum transmission rate, in bauds
B. The maximum permissible deviation
C. The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
D. The type of information to be transmitted

A8B09 (B) 
If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is A, representing
telegraphy for aural reception, what information about the emission is
described?
A. The maximum transmission rate, in words per minute
B. The type of information to be transmitted
C. The nature of signals modulating the main carrier
D. The maximum number of different signal elements

A8B10 (B) 
If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is B, representing
telegraphy for automatic reception, what information about the
emission is described?
A. The maximum transmission rate, in bauds
B. The type of information to be transmitted
C. The type of modulation of the main carrier
D. The transmission code is Baudot

A8B11 (D) 
If the third symbol of an ITU emission designator is F, representing
television (video), what information about the emission is described?
A. The maximum frequency variation of the color-burst pulse
B. The picture scan rate is fast
C. The type of modulation of the main carrier
D. The type of information to be transmitted

A8C  Modulation methods; modulation index; deviation ratio

A8C01 (C) 
How can an FM-phone signal be produced?
A. By modulating the supply voltage to a Class-B amplifier
B. By modulating the supply voltage to a Class-C amplifier
C. By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator
D. By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator

A8C02 (A) 
How can the unwanted sideband be removed from a double-sideband signal
generated by a balanced modulator to produce a single-sideband phone
signal?
A. By filtering
B. By heterodyning
C. By mixing
D. By neutralization

A8C03 (B) 
What is meant by modulation index?
A. The processor index
B. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and
the modulating frequency
C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio
D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest
audio modulating frequency

A8C04 (D) 
In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the ratio between the
deviation of the frequency modulated signal and the modulating
frequency?
A. FM compressibility
B. Quieting index
C. Percentage of modulation
D. Modulation index

A8C05 (D) 
How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with
RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?
A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

A8C06 (A) 
In an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz
either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index
when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
A. 3
B. 0.3
C. 3000
D. 1000

A8C07 (B) 
What is the modulation index of an FM-phone transmitter producing an
instantaneous carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz
modulating frequency?
A. 6000
B. 3
C. 2000
D. 1/3

A8C08 (B) 
What is meant by deviation ratio?
A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier
frequency
B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest
audio modulating frequency
C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating
frequency
D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average
audio modulating frequency

A8C09 (C) 
In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from
the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating
frequency?
A. Deviation index
B. Modulation index
C. Deviation ratio
D. Modulation ratio

A8C10 (D) 
What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum
frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum
modulation rate of 3 kHz?
A. 60
B. 0.16
C. 0.6
D. 1.66

A8C11 (A) 
What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum
frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum
modulation rate of 3.5 kHz?
A. 2.14
B. 0.214
C. 0.47
D. 47

A8D  Electromagnetic radiation; wave polarization; signal-to-noise
(S/N) ratio

A8D01 (C) 
What are electromagnetic waves?
A. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each
other
C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at
right angles to each other
D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each
other

A8D02 (A) 
At approximately what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free
space?
A. 300 million meters per second
B. 468 million meters per second
C. 186,300 feet per second
D. 300 million miles per second

A8D03 (C) 
Why don't electromagnetic waves penetrate a good conductor for more
than a fraction of a wavelength?
A. Electromagnetic waves are reflected by the surface of a good
conductor
B. Oxide on the conductor surface acts as a magnetic shield
C. The electromagnetic waves are dissipated as eddy currents in the
conductor surface
D. The resistance of the conductor surface dissipates the
electromagnetic waves

A8D04 (D) 
Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling
in free space?
A. Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
B. The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
C. The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their
source
D. Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy across a
vacuum

A8D05 (A) 
What is meant by horizontally polarized electromagnetic waves?
A. Waves with an electric field parallel to the Earth
B. Waves with a magnetic field parallel to the Earth
C. Waves with both electric and magnetic fields parallel to the Earth
D. Waves with both electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to the
Earth

A8D06 (B) 
What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
A. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
B. Waves with a rotating electric field
C. Waves that circle the Earth
D. Waves produced by a loop antenna

A8D07 (C) 
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its electric
field is perpendicular to the surface of the Earth?
A. Circular
B. Horizontal
C. Vertical
D. Elliptical

A8D08 (D) 
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic
field is parallel to the surface of the Earth?
A. Circular
B. Horizontal
C. Elliptical
D. Vertical

A8D09 (A) 
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its magnetic
field is perpendicular to the surface of the Earth?
A. Horizontal
B. Circular
C. Elliptical
D. Vertical

A8D10 (B) 
What is the polarization of an electromagnetic wave if its electric
field is parallel to the surface of the Earth?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. Elliptical

A8D11 (D) 
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in an HF-band
receiver with an antenna connected?
A. Detector noise
B. Man-made noise
C. Receiver front-end noise
D. Atmospheric noise

A8D12 (A) 
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard in a VHF/UHF-
band receiver with an antenna connected?
A. Receiver front-end noise
B. Man-made noise
C. Atmospheric noise
D. Detector noise

A8E  AC waveforms: Sine wave, square wave, sawtooth wave

A8E01 (B) 
What is a sine wave?
A. A constant-voltage, varying-current wave
B. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a
point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed
C. A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function
D. A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner

A8E02 (C) 
Starting at a positive peak, how many times does a sine wave cross the
zero axis in one complete cycle?
A. 180 times
B. 4 times
C. 2 times
D. 360 times

A8E03 (D) 
How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle?
A. 90  degrees
B. 270 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 360 degrees

A8E04 (A) 
What is the period of a wave?
A. The time required to complete one cycle
B. The number of degrees in one cycle
C. The number of zero crossings in one cycle
D. The amplitude of the wave

A8E05 (B) 
What is a square wave?
A. A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle
B. A wave that abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage
levels and remains an equal time at each level
C. A wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle
D. A wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy unequal
portions of the cycle time

A8E06 (C) 
What is a wave called that abruptly changes back and forth between two
voltage levels and remains an equal time at each level?
A. A sine wave
B. A cosine wave
C. A square wave
D. A sawtooth wave

A8E07 (D) 
What sine waves added to a fundamental frequency make up a square
wave?
A. A sine wave 0.707 times the fundamental frequency
B. All odd and even harmonics
C. All even harmonics
D. All odd harmonics

A8E08 (A) 
What type of wave is made up of a sine wave of a fundamental frequency
and all its odd harmonics?
A. A square wave
B. A sine wave
C. A cosine wave
D. A tangent wave

A8E09 (B) 
What is a sawtooth wave?
A. A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time
at each level
B. A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time (or
vice versa)
C. A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle
D. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by a
point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed

A8E10 (C) 
What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than the fall
time (or vice versa)?
A. A cosine wave
B. A square wave
C. A sawtooth wave
D. A sine wave

A8E11 (A) 
What type of wave is made up of sine waves of a fundamental frequency
and all harmonics?
A. A sawtooth wave
B. A square wave
C. A sine wave
D. A cosine wave

A8F  AC measurements: peak, peak-to-peak and root-mean-square (RMS)
value; peak-envelope-power (PEP) relative to average

A8F01 (B) 
What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet?
A. 240 volts
B. 170 volts
C. 120 volts
D. 340 volts

A8F02 (C) 
What is the peak-to-peak voltage at a common household electrical
outlet?
A. 240 volts
B. 120 volts
C. 340 volts
D. 170 volts

A8F03 (A) 
What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?
A. 120-V AC
B. 340-V AC
C. 85-V AC
D. 170-V AC

A8F04 (A) 
What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
A. 120-V AC
B. 170-V AC
C. 240-V AC
D. 300-V AC

A8F05 (C) 
What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?
A. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of
the peak AC voltage
B. The DC voltage causing the same heating of a given resistor as the
peak AC voltage
C. The AC voltage causing the same heating of a given resistor as a DC
voltage of the same value
D. The AC voltage found by taking the square root of the average AC
value

A8F06 (D) 
What would be the most accurate way of determining the RMS voltage of
a complex waveform?
A. By using a grid dip meter
B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
C. By using an absorption wavemeter
D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

A8F07 (A) 
For many types of voices, what is the approximate ratio of PEP to
average power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone
signal?
A. 2.5 to 1
B. 25 to 1
C. 1 to 1
D. 100 to 1

A8F08 (B) 
In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average
power ratio?
A. The frequency of the modulating signal
B. The speech characteristics
C. The degree of carrier suppression
D. The amplifier power

A8F09 (C) 
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class B RF power amplifier
stage in an FM-phone transmitter when the PEP output power is 1500
watts?
A. 900 watts
B. 1765 watts
C. 2500 watts
D. 3000 watts

A8F10 (B) 
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class C RF power amplifier
stage in a RTTY transmitter when the PEP output power is 1000 watts?
A. 850 watts
B. 1250 watts
C. 1667 watts
D. 2000 watts

A8F11 (D) 
What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power
amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP
output power is 500 watts?
A. 250 watts
B. 600 watts
C. 800 watts
D. 1000 watts

A9 -- ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES  [5 questions - 5 groups]

A9A  Basic antenna parameters: radiation resistance and reactance
(including wire dipole, folded dipole, gain, beamwidth, efficiency)

A9A01 (C) 
What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?
A. The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
B. The specific impedance of the antenna
C. The equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of
power as that radiated from an antenna
D. The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to
be able to radiate a signal

A9A02 - This question was inadvertently omitted.  This number is vacant.

A9A03 (A) 
Why would one need to know the radiation resistance of an antenna?
A. To match impedances for maximum power transfer
B. To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting
antenna
C. To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
D. To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

A9A04 (B) 
What factors determine the radiation resistance of an antenna?
A. Transmission-line length and antenna height
B. Antenna location with respect to nearby objects and the conductors'
length/diameter ratio
C. It is a physical constant and is the same for all antennas
D. Sunspot activity and time of day

A9A05 (C) 
What is the term for the ratio of the radiation resistance of an
antenna to the total resistance of the system?
A. Effective radiated power
B. Radiation conversion loss
C. Antenna efficiency
D. Beamwidth

A9A06 (D) 
What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance
B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
C. Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance

A9A07 (C) 
What is a folded dipole antenna?
A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
B. A type of ground-plane antenna
C. A dipole whose ends are connected by a one-half wavelength piece of
wire
D. A hypothetical antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace
the radiation resistance

A9A08 (D) 
How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of
a simple dipole antenna?
A. It is 0.707 times the bandwidth
B. It is essentially the same
C. It is less than 50%
D. It is greater

A9A09 (A) 
What is meant by antenna gain?
A. The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an
antenna to that of another antenna
B. The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the
signal in the back direction
C. The numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna
compared to the transmitter output power
D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses
(including any phasing lines present)

A9A10 (B) 
What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to
perform well
C. The angle between the half-power radiation points
D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends
of the elements

A9A11 (A) 
How can the approximate beamwidth of a beam antenna be determined?
A. Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is
down 3 dB from the maximum signal point and compute the angular
difference
B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and
measure the angle between the lines
D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
lobes from the front and side of the antenna

A9A12 (B) 
How is antenna efficiency calculated?
A. (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%
B. (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
C. (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
D. (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%

A9A13 (A) 
How can the efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made
comparable to that of a half-wave dipole antenna?
A. By installing a good ground radial system
B. By isolating the coax shield from ground
C. By shortening the vertical
D. By lengthening the vertical

A9B  Free-space antenna patterns: E and H plane patterns, (i.e.,
azimuth and elevation in free-space); gain as a function of pattern;
antenna design (computer modeling of antennas)

A9B01 (C) 
What determines the free-space polarization of an antenna?
A. The orientation of its magnetic field (H Field)
B. The orientation of its free-space characteristic impedance
C. The orientation of its electric field (E Field)
D. Its elevation pattern

A9B02 (B) 
Which of the following describes the free-space radiation pattern
shown in Figure A9-1?
A. Elevation pattern
B. Azimuth pattern
C. Bode pattern
D. Bandwidth pattern

A9B03 (B) 
In the free-space H-Field radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-1, what
is the 3-dB beamwidth?
A. 75 degrees
B. 50 degrees
C. 25 degrees
D. 30 degrees

A9B04 (B) 
In the free-space H-Field pattern shown in Figure A9-1, what is the
front-to-back ratio?
A. 36 dB
B. 18 dB
C. 24 dB
D. 14 dB

A9B05 (D) 
What information is needed to accurately evaluate the gain of an
antenna?
A. Radiation resistance
B. E-Field and H-Field patterns
C. Loss resistance
D. All of these choices

A9B06 (D) 
Which is NOT an important reason to evaluate a gain antenna across the
whole frequency band for which it was designed?
A. The gain may fall off rapidly over the whole frequency band
B. The feedpoint impedance may change radically with frequency
C. The rearward pattern lobes may vary excessively with frequency
D. The dielectric constant may vary significantly

A9B07 (B) 
What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum
forward gain?
A. The front-to-back ratio increases
B. The feedpoint impedance becomes very low
C. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
D. The SWR is reduced

A9B08 (A) 
If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are
properly retuned, what usually occurs?
A. The gain increases
B. The SWR decreases
C. The front-to-back ratio increases
D. The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly

A9B09 (B) 
What type of computer program is commonly used for modeling antennas?
A. Graphical analysis
B. Method of Moments
C. Mutual impedance analysis
D. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties

A9B10 (A) 
What is the principle of a "Method of Moments" analysis?
A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct
value of current
B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct
location in space
D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct
value of voltage across it

A9B11 (B) 
In the free-space H-field pattern shown in Figure A9-1, what is the
front-to-side ratio?
A. 12 dB
B. 14 dB
C. 18 dB
D. 24 dB

A9C  Antenna patterns: elevation above real ground; ground effects as
related to polarization; take-off angles as a function of height above
ground.

A9C01 (A) 
What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure A9-2?
A. Elevation pattern
B. Azimuth pattern
C. E-Plane pattern
D. Polarization pattern

A9C02 (B) 
How would the electric field be oriented for a Yagi with three
elements mounted parallel to the ground?
A. Vertically
B. Horizontally
C. Right-hand elliptically
D. Left-hand elliptically

A9C03 (A) 
What strongly affects the shape of the far-field, low-angle elevation
pattern of a vertically polarized antenna?
A. The conductivity and dielectric constant of the soil
B. The radiation resistance of the antenna
C. The SWR on the transmission line
D. The transmitter output power

A9C04 (D) 
The far-field, low-angle radiation pattern of a vertically polarized
antenna can be significantly improved by what measures?
A. Watering the earth surrounding the base of the antenna
B. Lengthening the ground radials more than a quarter wavelength
C. Increasing the number of ground radials from 60 to 120
D. None of these choices

A9C05 (D) 
How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized
antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?
A. The low-angle radiation decreases
B. The high-angle radiation increases
C. Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
D. The low-angle radiation increases

A9C06 (B) 
How is the far-field elevation pattern of a horizontally polarized
antenna affected by being mounted one wavelength high over seawater
versus rocky ground?
A. The low-angle radiation greatly increases
B. The effect on the radiation pattern is minor
C. The high-angle radiation increases greatly
D. The nulls in the elevation pattern are filled in

A9C07 (B) 
Why are elevated-radial counterpoises popular with vertically
polarized antennas?
A. They reduce the far-field ground losses
B. They reduce the near-field ground losses, compared to on-ground
radial systems using more radials
C. They reduce the radiation angle
D. None of these choices

A9C08 (C) 
If only a modest on-ground radial system can be used with an eighth-
wavelength-high, inductively loaded vertical antenna, what would be
the best compromise to minimize near-field losses?
A. 4 radial wires, 1 wavelength long
B. 8 radial wires, a half-wavelength long
C. A wire-mesh screen at the antenna base, an eighth-wavelength square
D. 4 radial wires, 2 wavelengths long

A9C09 (C) 
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-2, what is the
elevation angle of the peak response?
A. 45 degrees
B. 75 degrees
C. 7.5 degrees
D. 25 degrees

A9C10 (B) 
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-2, what is the
front-to-back ratio?
A. 15 dB
B. 28 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 24 dB

A9C11 (A) 
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure A9-2, how many
elevation lobes appear in the forward direction?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 7

A9D  Losses in real antennas and matching: resistivity losses, losses
in resonating elements (loading coils, matching networks, etc. {i.e.,
mobile, trap}); SWR bandwidth; efficiency

A9D01 (A) 
What is the approximate input terminal impedance at the center of a
folded dipole antenna?
A. 300 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 450 ohms

A9D02 (A) 
For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be
placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance?
A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
C. As close to the transmitter as possible
D. At a voltage node

A9D03 (C) 
Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of
reactance to resistance?
A. To swamp out harmonics
B. To maximize losses
C. To minimize losses
D. To minimize the Q

A9D04 (D) 
Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile antenna?
A. To improve reception
B. To lower the losses
C. To lower the Q
D. To tune out the capacitive reactance

A9D05 (A) 
What is a disadvantage of using a trap antenna?
A. It will radiate harmonics
B. It can only be used for single-band operation
C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
D. It must be neutralized

A9D06 (D) 
What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?
A. It has high directivity in the higher-frequency bands
B. It has high gain
C. It minimizes harmonic radiation
D. It may be used for multiband operation

A9D07 (B) 
What happens at the base feedpoint of a fixed length HF mobile antenna
as the frequency of operation is lowered?
A. The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
B. The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
C. The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
D. The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases

A9D08 (D) 
What information is necessary to design an impedance matching system
for an antenna?
A. Feedpoint radiation resistance and loss resistance
B. Feedpoint radiation reactance
C. Transmission-line characteristic impedance
D. All of these choices

A9D09 (A) 
How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a
"hairpin" matching system?
A. The driven element reactance is capacitive
B. The driven element reactance is inductive
C. The driven element resonance is higher than the operating frequency
D. The driven element radiation resistance is higher than the
characteristic impedance of the transmission line

A9D10 (C) 
What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a "hairpin"
matching system on a 3-element Yagi?
A. Pi network
B. Pi-L network
C. L network
D. Parallel-resonant tank

A9D11 (B) 
What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through
the use of loading coils?
A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
C. No change occurs
D. It becomes flat

A9D12 (D) 
What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical
antenna?
A. Lower Q
B. Greater structural strength
C. Higher losses
D. Improved radiation efficiency

A9E  Feed lines: coax vs. open-wire; velocity factor; electrical
length; transformation characteristics of line terminated in impedance
not equal to characteristic impedance.

A9E01 (D) 
What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the
terminating impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the
velocity of light in a vacuum
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the
velocity of light in a vacuum

A9E02 (A) 
What is the term for the ratio of the actual velocity at which a
signal travels through a transmission line to the speed of light in a
vacuum?
A. Velocity factor
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Surge impedance
D. Standing wave ratio

A9E03 (B) 
What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with
polyethylene dielectric?
A. 2.70
B. 0.66
C. 0.30
D. 0.10

A9E04 (C) 
What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?
A. The termination impedance
B. The line length
C. Dielectrics in the line
D. The center conductor resistivity

A9E05 (D) 
Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line
shorter than its electrical length?
A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
B. The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
C. The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
D. RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable

A9E06 (C) 
What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission
line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
(Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.)
A. 20 meters
B. 2.33 meters
C. 3.51 meters
D. 0.25 meters

A9E07 (B) 
What would be the physical length of a typical coaxial transmission
line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
(Assume a velocity factor of 0.66.)
A. 10.5 meters
B. 6.88 meters
C. 24 meters
D. 50 meters

A9E08 (C) 
What is the physical length of a parallel conductor feed line that is
electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (Assume a velocity
factor of 0.95.)
A. 15 meters
B. 20.2 meters
C. 10.1 meters
D. 70.8 meters

A9E09 (A) 
What is the physical length of a twin lead transmission feed line at
3.65 MHz? (Assume a velocity factor of 0.8.)
A. Electrical length times 0.8
B. Electrical length divided by 0.8
C. 80 meters
D. 160 meters

A9E10 (B) 
What parameter best describes the interactions at the load end of a
mismatched transmission line?
A. Characteristic impedance
B. Reflection coefficient
C. Velocity factor
D. Dielectric Constant

A9E11 (D) 
Which of the following measurements describes a mismatched
transmission line?
A. An SWR less than 1:1
B. A reflection coefficient greater than 1
C. A dielectric constant greater than 1
D. An SWR greater than 1:1

A9E12 (A) 
What characteristic will 450-ohm ladder line have at 50 MHz, as
compared to 0.195-inch-diameter coaxial cable (such as RG-58)?
A. Lower loss in dB/100 feet
B. Higher SWR
C. Smaller reflection coefficient
D. Lower velocity factor