E1A01 (B) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized
to Extra class control operators?
A.  3525-3775 kHz
B.  3500-3525 kHz
C.  3700-3750 kHz
D.  3500-3550 kHz

E1A02 (C) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized
to Extra class control operators?
A.  3775-3800 kHz
B.  3800-3850 kHz
C.  3750-3775 kHz
D.  3800-3825 kHz

E1A03 (A) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized
to Extra class control operators?
A.  7000-7025 kHz
B.  7000-7050 kHz
C.  7025-7050 kHz
D.  7100-7150 kHz

E1A04 (D) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized
to Extra class control operators?
A.  14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
B.  14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz
C.  14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz
D.  14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz

E1A05 (C) [97.301b]
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized
to Extra class control operators?
A.  21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz
B.  21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz
C.  21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz
D.  21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz

E1A06 (B) [97.219b&d]
If a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system
inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who
is accountable for the rules violation?
A.  The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B.  The control operator of the originating station and conditionally the
first forwarding station
C.  The control operators of all the stations in the system
D.  The control operators of all the stations in the system not
authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E1A07 (A) [97.219c]
If your packet bulletin board station inadvertently forwards a
communication that violates FCC rules, what is the first action you
should take?
A.  Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware
of it
B.  Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply
with FCC rules
C.  Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
D.  Discontinue forwarding all messages

E1A08 (D) [97.307c]
What must an amateur licensee do if a spurious emission from his or her
station causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio
station?
A.  Pay a fine each time it happens
B.  Submit a written explanation to the FCC
C.  Forfeit the station license if it happens more than once
D.  Eliminate or reduce the interference

E1A09 (A) [97.111a2,3,4]
When may an amateur station exchange messages with an FCC-regulated
non-amateur station?
A.  Only during emergencies, RACES operations, Armed Forces Day
Communications Tests or when the FCC authorizes such communications
B.  Under no circumstances
C.  Only during emergencies
D.  Only during Public Service events, REACT operations, Field Day or
when the FCC authorizes such communications

E1A10 (B) [97.303e]
What type of amateur stations are permitted to operate in the 219-220-MHz
band?
A.  Any type
B.  Only those participating in point-to-point fixed digital message
forwarding systems
C.  Only those licensed to Extra class operators
D.  Only those using an effective radiated power of 25 watts PEP or less
for digital communications

E1A11 (D) [97.27]
Why might the FCC modify an amateur station license?
A.  To relieve crowding in certain bands
B.  To better prepare for a time of national emergency
C.  To enforce a radio quiet zone within one mile of an airport
D.  To promote the public interest, convenience and necessity

E1A12 (A) [97.11a]
If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft and is
separate from the main radio installation, what condition must be met
before the station is operated?
A.  Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot
in command of the aircraft
B.  Its antenna must be separate from the main ship or aircraft antennas,
transmitting only when the main radios are not in use
C.  It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the
main ship or aircraft power supply
D.  Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his
or her amateur license

E1A13 (B) [97.11]
What type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit amateur
communications from a vessel registered in the US while in international
waters?
A.  Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
B.  Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee
C.  Any General class or higher license
D.  An Extra class license

E1A14 (D) [97.211b]
When may a station use special codes intended to obscure the meaning of
messages?
A.  Never under any circumstances
B.  When a Special Temporary Authority has been obtained from the FCC
C.  When an Extra class operator is controlling the station
D.  When sending telecommand messages to a station in space operation

E1B  Station Restrictions: Restrictions on station locations; Restricted
operation; Teacher as control operator; Station antenna structures

E1B01 (A) [97.13a]
Which of the following factors might restrict the physical location of an
amateur operator's station equipment or antenna structure?
A.  The land may have environmental importance; or it is significant in
American history, architecture or culture
B.  The location's political or societal importance
C.  The location's geographical or horticultural importance
D.  The location's international importance, requiring consultation with
one or more foreign governments before installation

E1B02 (A) [97.13b]
Outside of what distance from an FCC monitoring facility may an amateur
station be located without concern for protecting the facility from
harmful interference?
A.  1 mile
B.  3 miles
C.  10 miles
D.  30 miles

E1B03 (C) [97.13a]
What must be done before an amateur station is placed within an
officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area
listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
A.  A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B.  A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
C.  An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
D.  A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
E1B04 (A) [97.121a]
If an amateur station interferes with the reception of broadcast stations
on a well-engineered receiver, during what hours shall the amateur
station NOT be operated on the interfering frequencies?
A.  Daily from 8 PM to 10:30 PM local time and additionally from 10:30 AM
to 1 PM on Sunday
B.  Daily from 6 PM to 12 AM local time and additionally from 8 AM to 5
PM on Sunday
C.  Daily for any continuous span of at least 2.5 hours and for at least
5 continuous hours on Sunday
D.  Daily for any continuous span of at least 6 hours and for at least 9
continuous hours on Sunday

E1B05 (D) [97.121a]
If an amateur station causes interference to the reception of a domestic
broadcast station with a receiver of good engineering design, on what
frequencies may the operation of the amateur station be restricted?
A.  On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station
B.  On all frequencies below 30 MHz
C.  On all frequencies above 30 MHz
D.  On the interfering amateur frequency or frequencies

E1B06 (C) [97.113c]
When may a paid professional teacher be the control operator of an
amateur station used in the teacher's classroom?
A.  Only when the teacher is not paid during periods of time when an
amateur station is used
B.  Only when the classroom is in a correctional institution
C.  Only when the station is used by that teacher as a part of classroom
instruction at an educational institution
D.  Only when the station is restricted to making contacts with similar
stations at other educational institutions

E1B07 (B) [97.113c]
Who may accept compensation when acting as a control operator in a
classroom?
A.  Any licensed amateur
B.  Only teachers at educational institutions
C.  Only teachers at correctional institutions
D.  Only students at educational or correctional institutions

E1B08 (D) [97.15e]
What limits must state and local authorities observe when legislating
height and dimension restrictions for amateur antenna structures?
A.  FAA regulations specify a minimum height for amateur antenna
structures located near airports
B.  FCC regulations specify a 200 foot minimum height for amateur antenna
structures
C.  State and local restrictions of amateur antenna structures are not
allowed
D.  PRB-1 specifies that authorities must reasonably accommodate the
installation of amateur antenna structures

E1B09 (B) [97.15]
If an amateur antenna structure is located in a valley or canyon, what
height restrictions apply?
A.  The structure must not extend more that 200 feet above average height
of the terrain
B.  The structure must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at
its site
C.  There are no height restrictions since the structure would not be a
hazard to aircraft in a valley or canyon
D.  The structure must not extend more that 200 feet above the top of the
valley or canyon

E1B10 (B) [97.15]
Other than the general limitations placed on amateur antenna structures,
what special restrictions are placed on amateur repeater, beacon or
auxiliary station antenna structures?
A.  Approval from the FCC is required if the gain of the antenna is
greater than 6 dBi
B.  None
C.  Approval from local authorities must be obtained prior to antenna
installation
D.  Such structures are limited to a height no greater than 20 feet above
average terrain

E1B11 (D) [97.15b&c]
What kind of approval is required before erecting an amateur antenna
located near an airport as defined in the FCC rules?
A.  The FAA and FCC both must approve any type of antenna structure
located near an airport
B.  Approval must be obtained from the airport manager
C.  Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities
D.  The FCC must approve an antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet
above any natural or existing man made structure

E1B12 (C) [97.15]
What special restrictions does the FCC impose on amateur antennas mounted
on motor vehicles?
A.  Such antennas may not extend more than 15 feet above the roof of the
vehicle
B.  Complex antennas, such as a Yagi or quad beam, may not be installed
on motor vehicles
C.  None
D.  Such antennas must comply with the recommendations of the vehicle
manufacturer

E1C  Reciprocal Operating: Definition of reciprocal operating permit;
Purpose of reciprocal agreement rules; Alien control operator privileges;
Identification; Application for reciprocal permit; Reciprocal permit
license term

E1C01 (A) [97.5c1, 97.17d1]
What is an FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
A.  An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license issued by
certain foreign governments to operate an amateur station in the US
B.  An FCC permit to allow a US licensed amateur to operate in a foreign
nation, except Canada
C.  An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle
third-party traffic between the US and the amateur's own nation
D.  An FCC agreement with another country allowing the passing of
third-party traffic between amateurs of the two nations

E1C02 (B) [97.17]
Who is eligible for an FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
A.  Anyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign government
B.  Any non-US citizen holding an amateur license issued by a foreign
government with which the US has a reciprocal operating agreement
C.  Anyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign government
with which the US has a reciprocal operating agreement
D.  Any non-US citizen holding a valid amateur or shortwave listener's
license issued by a foreign government

E1C03 (C) [97.107]
What operator frequency privileges are authorized by an FCC reciprocal
permit for alien amateur licensee?
A.  Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent US amateur license,
unless the FCC specifies otherwise by endorsement on the permit
B.  Those that the holder of the permit would have in their own country
C.  Those authorized to US amateurs that the holder of the permit would
have in their own country, unless the FCC specifies otherwise
D.  Only those frequencies approved by the International Amateur Radio
Union, unless the FCC specifies otherwise

E1C04 (D) [97.119f]
What additional station identification, in addition to his or her own
call sign, does an alien operator supply when operating in the US under
an FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
A.  No additional identification is required
B.  The grid-square locator closest to his or her present location is
included before the call
C.  The serial number of the permit and the call-letter district number
of the station location is included before the call
D.  The letter-numeral indicating the station location in the US is
included before their own call and closest city and state

E1C05 (A) [97.17d3]
When may a US citizen holding a foreign amateur license obtain an FCC
Reciprocal Operating Permit?
A.  Never; US citizens are not eligible
B.  When the citizen has imported his or her equipment from the foreign
country
C.  When the citizen has never held a US amateur license
D.  When the citizen has no current US amateur license

E1C06 (C) [97.17b,d]
What form would a citizen of a foreign country use to apply for a
reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
A.  FCC Form 610
B.  Department of Immigration Form 610
C.  FCC Form 610-A
D.  FCC Alien Registration Form ARF-1

E1C07 (A) [97.17d]
Which of the following would disqualify a foreign amateur from being
eligible for a US reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
A.  Holding only an amateur license issued by a country but not being a
citizen of that country
B.  Citizenship in their own country but not US citizenship
C.  Holding only an amateur license issued by their own country but
holding no US amateur license
D.  Holding an amateur license issued by their own country granting them
frequency privileges beyond US Extra class privileges

E1C08 (B) [97.5c2]
What special document is required before a Canadian citizen holding a
Canadian amateur license may operate in the US?
A.  All aliens, including Canadians, must obtain a reciprocal permit for
alien amateur licensee
B.  No special document is required
C.  The citizen must have an FCC-issued validation of their Canadian
license
D.  The citizen must have an FCC-issued Certificate of US License Grant
without Examination to operate for a period longer than ten days

E1C09 (D) [97.17]
What is the minimum age for which a reciprocal permit for alien amateur
licensee may be issued to a foreign amateur?
A.  16 years for Canadian citizens, 18 years for all others
B.  18 years
C.  21 years
D.  There is no minimum age

E1C10 (C) [97.25b]
How long from the date of issue is a reciprocal permit valid?
A.  Thirty days
B.  Ninety days
C.  One year
D.  Ten years

E1C11 (B) [97.17d4]
What happens if a person holding a reciprocal permit for alien amateur
licensee qualifies for, and is granted a US amateur license?
A.  The operator must use the US call sign when operating within their US
license privileges, and the foreign license call sign otherwise
B.  The reciprocal permit becomes void and the operator is restricted to
the privileges of the US license
C.  The operator may use either his/her US or foreign call sign when
operating within the US license privileges
D.  The US amateur license will be voided as soon as the FCC audits their
amateur license database

E1D  Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES): Definition; Purpose;
Station registration; Station license required; Application for new RACES
license; Control operator requirements; Control operator privileges;
Frequencies available; Limitations on use of RACES frequencies; Points of
communication for RACES operation; Permissible communications

E1D01 (B) [97.3a35]
What is RACES?
A.  An amateur network for providing emergency communications during
athletic races
B.  The Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
C.  The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services
D.  An amateur network for providing emergency communications during boat
or aircraft races

E1D02 (A) [97.3a35]
What is the purpose of RACES?
A.  To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies
B.  To provide emergency communications for boat or aircraft races
C.  To provide routine and emergency communications for athletic races
D.  To provide routine and emergency military communications

E1D03 (C) [97.407a]
With what other organization must an amateur station be registered before
RACES registration is permitted?
A.  The Amateur Radio Emergency Service
B.  The US Department of Defense
C.  A civil defense organization
D.  The FCC Field Operations Bureau

E1D04 (C) [97.407a]
Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
A.  Only Extra class amateur stations
B.  Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Novice)
C.  Any licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil
defense organization
D.  Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Novice)
certified by the responsible civil defense organization

E1D05 (D) [97.21a1]
Application for modification of a RACES license must be made on what FCC
form, and sent to what FCC office?
A.  Form 610, sent to Washington, DC
B.  Form 610, sent to Gettysburg, PA
C.  Form 610-A, sent to Washington, DC
D.  Form 610-B, sent to Gettysburg, PA

E1D06 (D) [97.407a]
Who may be the control operator of a RACES station?
A.  Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice
B.  Only an Extra class licensee
C.  Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice and
is certified by a civil defense organization
D.  Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license and is certified by a
civil defense organization

E1D07 (A) [97.407b]
What additional operator privileges are granted to an Extra class
operator registered with RACES?
A.  None
B.  CW operations on 5167.5 kHz
C.  Unattended HF packet-radio station operations
D.  237-MHz civil defense band operations

E1D08 (D) [97.407b]
What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation?
A.  Only those frequencies authorized to civil defense organizations
B.  Only those frequencies authorized to emergency military
communications
C.  Only the top 25 kHz of each amateur frequency band
D.  All frequencies available to the amateur service

E1D09 (A) [97.407b]
What type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the frequencies
available for RACES operation?
A.  An emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency Powers
under the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934
B.  An emergency in only one state in the US would limit RACES operations
to a single HF frequency band
C.  An emergency confined to a 25-mile area would limit RACES operations
to a single VHF band
D.  An emergency involving no immediate danger of loss of life

E1D10 (B) [97.407c,d]
With what stations may amateur RACES stations communicate?
A.  Any RACES stations and any amateur stations except stations licensed
to Novices
B.  Any RACES stations and certain other stations authorized by the
responsible civil defense official
C.  Any amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications
Service
D.  Any amateur station and any military emergency station

E1D11 (C) [97.407e]
What are permissible communications in RACES?
A.  Any type of communications when there is no emergency
B.  Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications
C.  National defense or immediate safety of people and property and
communications authorized by the area civil defense organization
D.  National defense and security or immediate safety of people and
property communications authorized by the President

E1E  Amateur Satellite Service (ASAT): Definition; Purpose; Station
license required (space station); Frequencies available; Telecommand
operation: Definition; Eligibility; Telecommand station (definition);
Space Telecommand station; Special provisions; Telemetry: Definition;
Special provisions; Space station: Definition; Eligibility; Special
provisions; Authorized frequencies (space station); Notification
requirements; Earth operation: Definition; Eligibility {97.209(a)};
Authorized frequencies (Earth station)

E1E01 (C) [97.3a3]
What is the Amateur Satellite Service?
A.  A radio navigation service using stations on earth satellites for the
same purposes as those of the amateur service
B.  A radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for
weather information gathering
C.  A radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for
the same purpose as those of the amateur service
D.  A radio location service using stations on earth satellites for
amateur radar experimentation

E1E02 (A) [97.207]
Which HF amateur bands have frequencies available for space operation?
A.  Only 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m
B.  Only 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m and 10 m
C.  Only 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m
D.  All HF bands, but only in the Extra class segments

E1E03 (A) [97.207c1]
Which amateur bands are available for space operation?
A.  Only 17 m, 15 m, 12 m, 10 m, 6 mm, 4 mm, 2 mm and 1 mm and certain
frequency segments
B.  Only 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m
C.  Only 17 m, 15 m, 2 m, 1.25 m, 6 mm, 4 mm, 2 mm and 1 mm
D.  All amateur bands from 17 m and above

E1E04 (B) [97.3a42]
What type of amateur station operation transmits communications used to
initiate, modify or terminate the functions of a space station?
A.  Space operation
B.  Telecommand operation
C.  Earth operation
D.  Control operation

E1E05 (D) [97.211a]
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
A.  Any except those of Novice licensees
B.  Only those of Extra class licensees
C.  Only a station operated by the space station licensee
D.  Any station designated by the space station licensee

E1E06 (C) [97.207f]
What term does the FCC use for space-to-earth transmissions used to
communicate the results of measurements made by a space station?
A.  Data transmission
B.  Frame check sequence
C.  Telemetry
D.  Telecommand

E1E07 (B) [97.3a38]
What is the term used to describe the operation of an amateur station
that is more than 50 km above the earth's surface?
A.  EME station operation
B.  Space station operation
C.  Downlink station operation
D.  Ionospheric station operation

E1E08 (D) [97.207a]
Which amateur stations are eligible for space operation?
A.  Any except those of Novice licensees
B.  Only those of General, Advanced or Extra class licensees
C.  Only those of Extra class licensees
D.  Any amateur station

E1E09 (D) [97.207g]
Before initiating space station transmissions, by when must the
licensee of the station give the FCC prior written pre-space
notification?
A.  Before 3 months and before 72 hours
B.  Before 6 months and before 3 months
C.  Before 12 months and before 3 months
D.  Before 27 months and before 5 months

E1E10 (C) [97.207h]
After space station transmissions are initiated, by when must the
licensee of the station give the FCC written in-space notification?
A.  Within 24 hours
B.  Within 72 hours
C.  Within 7 days
D.  Within 30 days

E1E11 (D) [97.207i]
After space station transmissions are terminated, by when must the
licensee of the station normally give the FCC written post-space
notification?
A.  No later than 48 hours
B.  No later than 72 hours
C.  No later than 7 days
D.  No later than 3 months

E1E12 (B) [97.3a15]
What term describes an amateur station located on or within 50 km of
earth's surface intended for communications with space stations?
A.  Telecommand station
B.  Earth station
C.  Telemetry station
D.  Auxiliary station

E1F  Volunteer Examiner Coordinators (VECs): Definition; VEC
qualifications; VEC agreement; Scheduling examinations;  Coordinating
VEs; Conflict of interest; Reimbursement for expenses {97.527};
Accrediting VEs; Question pools

E1F01 (C) [97.521]
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
A.  A person who has volunteered to administer amateur license
examinations
B.  A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur license examinations
C.  An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to
coordinate amateur license examinations given by Volunteer Examiners
D.  An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to
coordinate the preparation of amateur license examinations
 
E1F02 (A) [97.519, .521, .523]
Which of the following is NOT among the functions of a VEC?
A.  Prepare and administer amateur operator license examinations, grade
examinee's answers and inform examinees of their pass/fail results
B.  Collect FCC Forms 610 documents and test results from the
administering VEs
C.  Assure that all desiring an amateur operator license examination are
registered without regard to race, sex, religion or national origin
D.  Cooperate in maintaining a pool of questions for each written amateur
examination element
 
E1F03 (B) [97.521]
Which of the following is NOT among the qualifying requirements to be a
VEC?
A.  Be an organization that exists for the purpose of furthering the
amateur service
B.  Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur station
equipment or amateur license preparation materials
C.  Agree to coordinate examinations for all classes of amateur operator
licenses
D.  Agree to administer amateur operator license examinations in
accordance with FCC Rules throughout at least one call-letter district
 
E1F04 (D) [97.521e]
Under what circumstances may an organization engaged in the manufacture
of equipment used in connection with amateur station transmissions be a
VEC?
A.  Under no circumstances
B.  If the organization's amateur-related sales are small in comparison
to its overall sales
C.  If the organization is manufacturing very specialized amateur
equipment
D.  Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to
preclude any possible conflict of interest
 
E1F05 (D) [97.521e]
Under what circumstances may an organization engaged in the preparation
or distribution of any publication used in preparation for obtaining an
amateur operator license be a VEC?
A.  Under no circumstances
B.  Only if the organization's amateur-related sales are small in
comparison to its overall sales
C.  Only if the organization is selling its amateur-related publications
at cost to examinees
D.  Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to
preclude any possible conflict of interest
 
E1F06 (B) [97.519a]
What organization coordinates the preparing and administration of amateur
license examinations?
A.  The FCC
B.  A VEC
C.  A group of three or more volunteers
D.  A local radio club

E1F07 (D) [97.509b5]
Under what circumstance may an employee of a company engaged in the
manufacture of amateur transmitting equipment become a VE?
A.  Any person may become a VE regardless of their employment
B.  Only if the person receives special permission from their employer
C.  Only if the person receives special permission from their accrediting
VEC
D.  Only if the person does not normally communicate with the
manufacturing department

E1F08 (A) [97.527a]
Who may reimburse VEs and VECs for out-of-pocket expenses incurred in
preparing, processing or administering amateur license examinations?
A.  The examinees
B.  The FCC
C.  The National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
D.  The US Department of the Treasury

E1F09 (A) [97.525a4]
Under what circumstances may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a
Volunteer Examiner?
A.  If the VEC determines that questions of the person's integrity or
honesty could compromise amateur license examinations
B.  If the VEC determines that the person is a Volunteer Examiner for
another VEC
C.  If the prospective VE is not a member of a club actively engaged in
the preparation and administration of amateur license examinations
D.  If the prospective VE is a citizen of a foreign country

E1F10 (B) [97.527f]
What action must a VEC take against a VE who accepts reimbursement and
fails to provide the annual expense certification?
A.  Suspend the VE's accreditation for 1 year
B.  Disaccredit the VE
C.  Request that the FCC suspend the VE's amateur license
D.  Suspend the VE's accreditation for 6 months

E1F11 (C) [97.523]
Where are the questions listed that must be used in all written US
amateur license examinations?
A.  In the instructions each VEC gives to their VEs
B.  In an FCC-maintained question pool
C.  In the VEC-maintained question pool
D.  In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

E1G  Volunteer Examiners (VEs): Definition; Requirements; Accreditation;
Reimbursement for expenses; VE conduct; Preparing an examination

E1G01 (B) [97.525]
What is an accredited VE?
A.  An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow VEs to
administer amateur license examinations
B.  An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur
operator license examinations
C.  An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for
a fee
D.  An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to
administer amateur license examinations

E1G02 (D) [97.509b1, 97.525]
What is the VE accreditation process?
A.  General and higher class licensees are automatically allowed to
conduct amateur license examinations once their license is granted
B.  The FCC tests volunteers who wish to conduct amateur license
examinations
C.  A prospective VE requests permission from three or more already
accredited VEs to administer amateur license examinations
D.  Each VEC ensures its Volunteer Examiner applicants meet FCC
requirements to serve as VEs

E1G03 (A) [97.509b]
What are the minimum requirements for an amateur licensee to receive VE
accreditation?
A.  A General class license; 18 years old; no conflict of interest; never
had an amateur license suspended or revoked
B.  An Advanced class license; 16 years old; no conflict of interest
C.  An Extra class license; 18 years old; never had an amateur license
suspended or revoked
D.  A General class license; 16 years old; no conflict of interest; never
had an amateur license suspended or revoked

E1G04 (C) [97.509b4]
Which persons seeking to be VEs cannot be accredited?
A.  Persons holding less than an Advanced class license
B.  Persons less than 21 years of age
C.  Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended or revoked
D.  Persons who are employees of the federal government

E1G05 (A) [97.527c]
What type of expense records must be maintained by a VE who accepts
reimbursement?
A.  All out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements from each examination
session
B.  All out-of-pocket expenses only
C.  Reimbursements from examiners only
D.  FCC reimbursements only

E1G06 (C) [97.527d]
If reimbursement for an examination session is accepted by a VE, for what
period of time must the VE maintain records of out-of-pocket expenses and
reimbursements?
A.  1 year
B.  2 years
C.  3 years
D.  4 years

E1G07 (B) [97.527e]
If reimbursement for an examination session is accepted by a VE, by what
date following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted must a
VE forward an expense certification to the VEC?
A.  December 15
B.  January 15
C.  April 15
D.  October 15

E1G08 (A) [97.527a]
For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-pocket
expenses?
A.  Preparing, processing or administering amateur license
examinations
B.  Teaching and administering amateur license study courses
C.  None; a VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses
D.  Purchasing and distributing amateur license preparation materials

E1G09 (A) [97.509e, 97.527b]
How much money beyond reimbursement for out-of-pocket expenses may a
person accept for serving as a VE?
A.  None
B.  Up to the national minimum hourly wage times the number of hours
spent serving as a VE
C.  Up to the maximum fee per applicant set by the FCC each year
D.  As much as applicants are willing to donate

E1G10 (B) [97.507a, b, c]
Who may prepare an Element 3(A) amateur operator license examination?
A.  A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
B.  A General, Advanced, or Extra class VE or a qualified supplier that
selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
C.  An Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate FCC
bulletin
D.  The FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question
pool

E1G11 (C) [97.507a, b, c]
Who may prepare an Element 3(B) amateur operator license examination?
A.  An Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate FCC
bulletin
B.  A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
C.  An Advanced or Extra class VE or a qualified supplier that selects
questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
D.  The, FCC which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question
pool

E1G12 (D) [97.507a, b, c]
Who may prepare an Element 4(A) or 4(B) amateur operator license
examination?
A.  The FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question
pool
B.  A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
C.  An Extra class VE that selects questions from the appropriate FCC
bulletin
D.  An Extra class VE or a qualified supplier who selects questions from
the appropriate VEC question pool

E1G13 (D) [97.509a]
Who determines where and when examinations for amateur operator licenses
are to be administered?
A.  The FCC
B.  The National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
C.  The applicants
D.  The administering Volunteer Examiners

E1H  Examinations: Examination elements; Definition of code and written
elements; Preparation responsibility; Examination requirements;
Examination credit; Examination procedure; Examination administration;
Temporary operating authority

E1H01 (C) [97.505a6]
What amateur operator license examination credit must be given for a
valid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)?
A.  Only the written elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed
B.  Only the telegraphy elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed
C.  Each element the CSCE indicates the examinee passed
D.  No credit

E1H02 (A) [97.509c]
Where must Volunteer Examiners be while they are conducting an amateur
license examination?
A.  They must all be present and observing the candidate(s) throughout
the entire examination
B.  They must all leave the room after handing out the exams to allow the
candidate(s) to concentrate on the exam material
C.  They may be anywhere as long as at least one VE is present and is
observing the candidate(s) throughout the entire examination
D.  They may be anywhere as long as they are listed as having
participated in the examination

E1H03 (C) [97.509c]
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision
during an amateur operator license examination session?
A.  The VEC coordinating the session
B.  The FCC
C.  The administering Volunteer Examiners
D.  The Volunteer Examiner in charge of the session

E1H04 (B) [97.509c]
What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's
instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
A.  Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in
termination of the examination
B.  Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
C.  Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the
results
D.  Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session

E1H05 (C) [97.509h]
What must be done with the test papers of each element completed by the
candidates(s) at an amateur operator license examination?
A.  They must be collected and graded by the administering VEs within 10
days of the examination
B.  They must be collected and sent to the coordinating VEC for grading
within 10 days of the examination
C.  They must be collected and graded immediately by the administering
VEs
D.  They must be collected and sent to the FCC for grading within 10 days
of the examination

E1H06 (A) [97.509j]
What must the VEs do if an examinee for an amateur operator license does
not score a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an
upgrade?
A.  Return the application document to the examinee and inform the
examinee of the grade(s)
B.  Return the application document to the examinee and inform the
examinee which questions were incorrectly answered
C.  Simply inform the examinee of the failure(s)
D.  Inform the examinee which questions were incorrectly answered and
show how the questions should have been answered

E1H07 (D) [97.509i]
What must the VEs do if an examinee for an amateur operator license
scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade?
A.  Return the application document to the examinee and inform the
examinee of the percentage of questions answered correctly
B.  Simply inform the examinee of the upgrade
C.  Issue the examinee the upgraded license
D.  Certify the qualification for the new license on the examinee's
application document

E1H08 (A) [97.509m]
What must the VEs do if one or more examinees upgrade at an amateur
operator license examination session?
A.  Submit the applications and test papers from upgrading examinees to
the coordinating VEC within 10 days of the session
B.  Submit the applications and test papers from upgrading examinees to
the FCC within 10 days of the session
C.  Submit all applications and a copy of all CSCEs given at the session
to the FCC within 30 days of the session
D.  Submit all applications and test papers from the session to the
coordinating VEC within 30 days of the session

E1H09 (B) [97.509b3i]
What minimum credentials must a person have to administer an examination
for a Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus class license?
A.  Any class of amateur operator license the coordinating VEC designates
as an examiner
B.  A General, Advanced or Extra class amateur operator license and VEC
accreditation
C.  A General, Advanced or Extra class amateur operator license and FCC
accreditation
D.  A General, Advanced or Extra class amateur operator license

E1H10 (D) [97.509b3ii]
What minimum credentials must a person have to administer an examination
for a General, Advanced or Extra class operator license?
A.  Any class of amateur operator license the coordinating VEC designates
as an examiner
B.  An Extra class amateur operator license
C.  FCC accreditation and an Extra class amateur operator license
D.  VEC accreditation and an Extra class amateur operator license

E1H11 (A)
What document allows an amateur who has passed an examination for, but
has not yet received an FCC grant of, a higher class license to operate
using the privileges of the new license?
A.  A Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) issued
by the VE Team that administered the examination
B.  An FCC Form 610 certified for the higher class license by the VE Team
that administered the examination
C.  The list of upgrading applicants sent to the VEC coordinating the
examination by the administering VE Team
D.  The list of upgrading applicants sent to the FCC from the VEC
coordinating the examination

E1H12 (B) [97.119e4]
How must an Advanced class amateur holding a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for an Extra class license identify his
or her station when using Extra class license privileges?
A.  An identifier code of "Extra" must be used as a prefix to the
amateur's call sign
B.  An identifier code of "AE" must be used as a suffix to the amateur's
call sign
C.  The phrase "operating temporary Extra" must be added as a suffix to
the amateur's call sign
D.  The identifier code of "E" must be added as a prefix to the amateur's
call sign
SUBELEMENT E2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [4 exam questions - 4 groups]

E2A  Amateur Satellites: Orbital mechanics; Frequencies available for
satellite operation; Satellite hardware; Operating through amateur
satellites

E2A01 (C)
What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
A.  From west to east
B.  From east to west
C.  From south to north
D.  From north to south

E2A02 (A)
What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
A.  From north to south
B.  From west to east
C.  From east to west
D.  From south to north

E2A03 (C)
What is the period of an amateur satellite?
A.  The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
B.  The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
C.  The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit
D.  The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee

E2A04 (D)
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode
A in amateur satellite operations?
A.  Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters
B.  Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters
C.  Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters
D.  Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters

E2A05 (B)
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode
B in amateur satellite operations?
A.  Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters
B.  Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters
C.  Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters
D.  Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters

E2A06 (C)
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode
J in amateur satellite operations?
A.  Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters
B.  Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters
C.  Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters
D.  Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and transmitting on 10 meters

E2A07 (D)
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode
L in amateur satellite operations?
A.  Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters
B.  Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters
C.  Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 23
centimeters
D.  Satellite receiving on 23 centimeters and retransmitting on 70
centimeters

E2A08 (B)
What is a linear transponder?
A.  A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals
B.  A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a
certain passband
C.  An amplifier that varies its output linearly in response to input
signals
D.  A device which responds to satellite telecommands and is used to
activate a linear sequence of events

E2A09 (D)
What is the name of the effect which causes the downlink frequency of a
satellite to vary by several kHz during a low-earth orbit because the
distance between the satellite and ground station is changing?
A.  The Kepler effect
B.  The Bernoulli effect
C.  The Einstein effect
D.  The Doppler effect

E2A10 (A)
Why does the received signal from a Phase 3 amateur satellite exhibit a
fairly rapid pulsed fading effect?
A.  Because the satellite is rotating
B.  Because of ionospheric absorption
C.  Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
D.  Because of the Doppler effect

E2A11 (B)
What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin
modulation and Faraday rotation?
A.  A nonpolarized antenna
B.  A circularly polarized antenna
C.  An isotropic antenna
D.  A log-periodic dipole array

E2B  Television: Fast scan television (FSTV) standards; Slow scan
television (SSTV) standards

E2B01 (A)
How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan
television system?
A.  30
B.  60
C.  90
D.  120

E2B02 (C)
How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame?
A.  30
B.  60
C.  525
D.  1050

E2B03 (D)
How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television
system?
A.  By scanning the field from top to bottom
B.  By scanning the field from bottom to top
C.  By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in
the next
D.  By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in
the next

E2B04 (B)
What is blanking in a video signal?
A.  Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
B.  Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to
left and from bottom to top
C.  Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
D.  Transmitting a black and white test pattern

E2B05 (A)
What is the standard video voltage level between the sync tip and the
whitest white at TV camera outputs and modulator inputs?
A.  1 volt peak-to-peak
B.  120 IEEE units
C.  12 volts DC
D.  5 volts RMS

E2B06 (D)
What is the bandwidth of a vestigial sideband AM fast-scan television
transmission?
A.  3 kHz
B.  10 kHz
C.  25 kHz
D.  6 MHz

E2B07 (C)
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black?
A.  0%
B.  12.5%
C.  70%
D.  100%

E2B08 (B)
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
A.  0%
B.  12.5%
C.  70%
D.  100%

E2B09 (C)
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?
A.  0%
B.  12.5%
C.  75%
D.  100%

E2B10 (A)
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV
(Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial
sideband AM television
A.  Immunity from fading due to limiting
B.  Poor weak-signal performance
C.  Greater signal bandwidth
D.  Greater complexity of receiving equipment

E2B11 (A)
Which of the following is NOT a common method of transmitting
accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
A.  Amplitude modulation of the video carrier
B.  Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
C.  A separate VHF or UHF audio link
D.  Frequency modulation of the video carrier

E2C  Contest and DX Operating

E2C01 (A)
What would be the ideal operating strategy for a worldwide DX contest
during a solar minimum instead of a solar maximum?
A.  160-40 meters would be emphasized during the evening; 20 meters
during daylight hours
B.  There would be little to no strategic difference
C.  80 meters would support worldwide communication during mid-day hours
D.  10 and 15 meters should be tried one hour before sunset

E2C02 (A)
When operating during a contest, which of these standards should you
generally follow?
A.  Always listen before transmitting, be courteous and do not cause
harmful interference to other communications
B.  Always reply to other stations calling CQ at least as many times as
you call CQ
C.  When initiating a contact, always reply with the call sign of the
station you are calling followed by your own call sign
D.  Always include your signal report, name and transmitter power output
in any exchange with another station

E2C03 (B)
What is one of the main purposes for holding on-the-air operating
contests?
A.  To test the dollar-to-feature value of station equipment during
difficult operating circumstances
B.  To enhance the communicating and operating skills of amateurs in
readiness for an emergency
C.  To measure the ionospheric capacity for refracting RF signals under
varying conditions
D.  To demonstrate to the FCC that amateur station operation is possible
during difficult operating circumstances

E2C04 (C)
Which of the following is typical of operations during an international
amateur DX contest?
A.  Calling CQ is always done on an odd minute and listening is always
done on an even minute
B.  Contacting a DX station is best accomplished when the WWV K index is
above a reading of 8
C.  Some DX operators use split frequency operations (transmitting on a
frequency different from the receiving frequency)
D.  DX contacts during the day are never possible because of known band
attenuation from the sun

E2C05 (D)
If a DX station asks for your grid square locator, what should be your
reply?
A.  The square of the power fed to the grid of your final amplifier and
your current city, state and country
B.  The DX station's call sign followed by your call sign and your RST
signal report
C.  The subsection of the IARU region in which you are located based upon
dividing the entire region into a grid of squares 10 km wide
D.  Your geographic "Maidenhead" grid location (e.g., FN31AA) based on
your current latitude and longitude

E2C06 (A)
What does a "Maidenhead" grid square refer to?
A.  A two-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, as part of a
world wide numbering system
B.  A one-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, beginning at
the South Pole
C.  An antenna made of wire grid used to amplify low-angle incoming
signals while reducing high-angle incoming signals
D.  An antenna consisting of a screen or grid positioned directly beneath
the radiating element

E2C07 (B)
Which of the following items of information are typically included in a
contest exchange?
A.  Both stations' call signs and the station antenna type
B.  Both stations' call signs and an RST signal report
C.  The originating station's call sign and transmitter's manufacturer
D.  The originating station's call sign and operator's first name

E2C08 (C)
During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band section would you expect to find
the highest level of contest activity?
A.  At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
B.  In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
C.  At the bottom of each band, usually in the weak signal segment
D.  In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling
frequency

E2C09 (D)
Which of the following frequency ranges is reserved by "gentlemen's
agreement" for DX contacts during international 6-meter contests?
A.  50.000 to 50.025 MHz
B.  50.050 to 50.075 MHz
C.  50.075 to 50.100 MHz
D.  50.100 to 50.125 MHz

E2C10 (C)
If you are in the US calling a station in Texas on a frequency of 1832
kHz and a station replies that you are "in the window," what does this
mean?
A.  You are operating out of the band privileges of your license
B.  You are calling at the wrong time of day to be within the window of
frequencies that can be received in Texas at that time
C.  You are transmitting in a frequency segment that is reserved for
international DX contacts by "gentlemen's agreement"
D.  Your modulation has reached an undesirable level and you are
interfering with another contact

E2C11 (B)
During low sunspot activity, if DX signals become weak and fluttery from
Europe across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what
could you do to find other European DX stations?
A.  Switch to a higher frequency HF band, because the MUF has increased
B.  Switch to a lower frequency HF band, because the MUF has decreased
C.  Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
D.  Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band

E2D  Digital Operating: Facsimile; AMTEX; Packet clusters; Packet
bulletin boards

E2D01 (B)
What is the most common method of transmitting data emissions below 30
MHz?
A.  DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
B.  FSK (frequency-shift keying) of an RF carrier
C.  AFSK (audio frequency-shift keying) of an FM signal
D.  Key-operated on/off switching of an RF carrier

E2D02 (A)
What do the letters "FEC" mean as they relate to AMTOR operation?
A.  Forward Error Correction
B.  First Error Correction
C.  Fatal Error Correction
D.  Final Error Correction

E2D03 (C)
How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
A.  By transmitting blocks of 3 data characters from the sending station
to the receiving station which the receiving station acknowledges
B.  By transmitting a special FEC algorithm which the receiving station
uses for data validation
C.  By transmitting each data character twice, since there is no specific
acknowledgment of reception
D.  By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to
a predefined algorithm

E2D04 (B)
What does "CMD:" mean when it is displayed on the video monitor of a
packet station?
A.  The TNC is ready to exit the packet terminal program
B.  The TNC is in command mode, ready to receive instructions from the
keyboard
C.  The TNC will exit to the command mode on the next keystroke
D.  The TNC is in KISS mode running TCP/IP, ready for the next command

E2D05 (D)
What is the Baudot code?
A.  A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data
systems using seven data bits
B.  A binary code consisting of eight data bits
C.  An alternate name for Morse code
D.  The "International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2" (ITA2) which uses
five data bits

E2D06 (A)
If an oscilloscope is connected to a TNC or terminal unit and is
displaying two crossed ellipses, one of which suddenly disappears, what
would this indicate about the observed signal?
A.  The phenomenon known as "selective fading" has occurred
B.  One of the signal filters has saturated
C.  The receiver should be retuned, as it has probably moved at least 5
kHz from the desired receive frequency
D.  The mark and space signal have been inverted and the receiving
equipment has not yet responded to the change

E2D07 (D)
Which of the following systems is used to transmit high-quality still
images by radio?
A.  AMTOR
B.  Baudot RTTY
C.  AMTEX
D.  Facsimile

E2D08 (C)
What special restrictions are imposed on facsimile (fax) transmissions?
A.  None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
B.  They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945
MHz
C.  They are allowed in phone band segments if their bandwidth is no
greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
D.  They are not permitted above 54 MHz

E2D09 (D)
What is the name for a bulletin transmission system that includes a
special header to allow receiving stations to determine if the bulletin
has been previously received?
A.  ARQ mode A
B.  FEC mode B
C.  AMTOR
D.  AMTEX

E2D10 (A)
What is a Packet Cluster Bulletin Board?
A.  A packet bulletin board devoted primarily to serving a special
interest group
B.  A group of general-purpose packet bulletin boards linked together in
a "cluster"
C.  A special interest cluster of packet bulletin boards devoted entirely
to packet radio computer communications
D.  A special interest telephone/modem bulletin board devoted to amateur
DX operations

E2D11 (C)
Which of the following statements comparing HF and 2-meter packet
operations is NOT true?
A.  HF packet typically uses an FSK signal with a data rate of 300 bauds;
2-meter packet uses an AFSK signal with a data rate of 1200 bauds
B.  HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use the same code for
information exchange
C.  HF packet is limited to Extra class amateur licensees; 2 meter
packet is open to all but Novice class amateur licensees
D.  HF packet operations are limited to "CW/Data"-only band segments; 2-
meter packet is allowed wherever FM operations are allowed

SUBELEMENT E3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [2 exam questions - 2 groups]

E3A  Earth-Moon-Earth (EME or moonbounce) communications; Meteor
scatter

E3A01 (D)
What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by
moonbounce?
A.  500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
B.  2000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee
C.  5000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
D.  Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window

E3A02 (B)
What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal?
A.  A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
B.  A fluttery, rapid irregular fading
C.  A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
D.  The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the
transmitted signal

E3A03 (A)
What are the best days to schedule EME contacts?
A.  When the moon is at perigee
B.  When the moon is full
C.  When the moon is at apogee
D.  When the weather at both stations is clear

E3A04 (D)
What type of receiving system is required for EME communications?
A.  Equipment with very low power output
B.  Equipment with very low dynamic range
C.  Equipment with very low gain
D.  Equipment with very low noise figures

E3A05 (A)
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz
when attempting an earth-moon-earth contact?
A.  Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two
minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
B.  One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute
and then receives for the following one minute
C.  Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for
a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
D.  Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes
and then receives for the following five minutes

E3A06 (C)
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz
when attempting an EME contact?
A.  Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two
minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
B.  One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute
and then receives for the following one minute
C.  Two and one half minute sequences, where one station transmits for
a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
D.  Five minute sequences, where one station transmits for five
minutes and then receives for the following five minutes

E3A07 (B)
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in
the 2-meter band?
A.  144.000 - 144.001 MHz
B.  144.000 - 144.100 MHz
C.  144.100 - 144.300 MHz
D.  145.000 - 145.100 MHz

E3A08 (D)
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in
the 70-cm band?
A.  430.000 - 430.150 MHz
B.  430.100 - 431.100 MHz
C.  431.100 - 431.200 MHz
D.  432.000 - 432.100 MHz

E3A09 (A)
When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a cylindrical
region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
A.  The E layer
B.  The F1 layer
C.  The F2 layer
D.  The D layer

E3A10 (C)
Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter
communications?
A.  1.8 - 1.9 MHz
B.  10 - 14 MHz
C.  28 - 148 MHz
D.  220 - 450 MHz

E3A11 (C)
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz
when attempting a meteor-scatter contact?
A.  Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two
minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
B.  One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute
and then receives for the following one minute
C.  15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds
and then receives for the following 15 seconds
D.  30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30 seconds
and then receives for the following 30 seconds

E3B  Transequatorial; Long Path; Gray line
E3B01 (A)
What is transequatorial propagation?
A.  Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance
north and south of the magnetic equator
B.  Propagation between two points at approximately the same latitude
on the magnetic equator
C.  Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the
magnetic equator
D.  Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E3B02 (C)
What is the approximate maximum range for signals using
transequatorial propagation?
A.  1000 miles
B.  2500 miles
C.  5000 miles
D.  7500 miles

E3B03 (C)
What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
A.  Morning
B.  Noon
C.  Afternoon or early evening
D.  Late at night

E3B04 (A)
What type of propagation is probably occurring if a beam antenna must
be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive
the strongest signals?
A.  Long-path
B.  Sporadic-E
C.  Transequatorial
D.  Auroral

E3B05 (D)
On what amateur bands can long-path propagation provide signal
enhancement?
A.  160 to 40 meters
B.  30 to 10 meters
C.  160 to 10 meters
D.  160 to 6 meters

E3B06 (B)
What amateur band consistently yields long-path enhancement using a
modest antenna of relatively high gain?
A.  80 meters
B.  20 meters
C.  10 meters
D.  6 meters

E3B07 (D)
What is the typical reason for hearing an echo on the received signal
of a station in Europe while directing your HF antenna toward the
station?
A.  The station's transmitter has poor frequency stability
B.  The station's transmitter is producing spurious emissions
C.  Auroral conditions are causing a direct and a long-path reflected
signal to be received
D.  There are two signals being received, one from the most direct
path and one from long-path propagation

E3B08 (D)
What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel
along the earth's terminator?
A.  Transequatorial
B.  Sporadic-E
C.  Long-path
D.  Gray-line

E3B09 (A)
At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent?
A.  Twilight, at sunrise and sunset
B.  When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting
station
C.  When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the
communications path between the two stations
D.  When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving
station

E3B10 (B)
What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
A.  At midday the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the
ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
B.  At twilight solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric
ionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF
C.  At darkness solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric
ionization remains steady
D.  At midafternoon the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio
wave refraction and the MUF

E3B11 (C)
What communications are possible during gray-line propagation?
A.  Contacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band
B.  Contacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands
C.  Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands
D.  Contacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 10- and 15-meter bands

SUBELEMENT E4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [4 exam questions - 4 groups]

E4A  Test Equipment: Spectrum analyzers (Interpreting spectrum
analyzer displays; Transmitter output spectrum); Logic probes
(Indications of high and low states in digital circuits; Indications
of pulse conditions in digital circuits)

E4A01 (C)
How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain
oscilloscope?
A.  A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an
oscilloscope displays electrical signals
B.  A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the time domain; an
oscilloscope displays signals in the frequency domain
C.  A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an
oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
D.  A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope
displays audio frequencies

E4A02 (D)
What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
A.  Amplitude
B.  Voltage
C.  Resonance
D.  Frequency

E4A03 (A)
What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
A.  Amplitude
B.  Duration
C.  Frequency
D.  Time

E4A04 (A)
Which test instrument is used to display spurious signals from a radio
transmitter?
A.  A spectrum analyzer
B.  A wattmeter
C.  A logic analyzer
D.  A time-domain reflectometer

E4A05 (B)
Which test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion
products from an SSB transmitter?
A.  A wattmeter
B.  A spectrum analyzer
C.  A logic analyzer
D.  A time-domain reflectometer

E4A06 (C)
Which of the following is NOT something you would determine with a
spectrum analyzer?
A.  The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2-
meter duplexer
B.  Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone
frequency
C.  The speed at which a transceiver switches from transmit to receive
when being used for packet radio
D.  The spectral output of a transmitter

E4A07 (B)
What is an advantage of using a spectrum analyzer to observe the
output from a VHF transmitter?
A.  There are no advantages; an inexpensive oscilloscope can display
the same information
B.  It displays all frequency components of the transmitted signal
C.  It displays a time-varying representation of the modulation
envelope
D.  It costs much less than any other instrumentation useful for such
measurements

E4A08 (D)
What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring
the status of a logic circuit?
A.  It has many more leads to connect to the circuit than a voltmeter
B.  It can be used to test analog and digital circuits
C.  It can read logic circuit voltage more accurately than a voltmeter
D.  It is smaller and shows a simplified readout

E4A09 (C)
Which test instrument is used to directly indicate high and low
digital states?
A.  An ohmmeter
B.  An electroscope
C.  A logic probe
D.  A Wheatstone bridge

E4A10 (D)
What can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit?
A.  A short-circuit fault
B.  An open-circuit fault
C.  The resistance between logic modules
D.  The high and low logic states

E4A11 (A)
Which test instrument besides an oscilloscope is used to indicate
pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit?
A.  A logic probe
B.  An ohmmeter
C.  An electroscope
D.  A Wheatstone bridge

E4B  Receiver performance measurements: Sensitivity; Selectivity;
Dynamic range; Noise figure

E4B01 (D)
What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver?
A.  Dynamic range and third-order intercept
B.  Cost and availability
C.  Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
D.  Bandwidth and noise figure

E4B02 (A)
What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications
receiver?
A.  The noise floor of the receiver
B.  The power-supply output ripple
C.  The two-tone intermodulation distortion
D.  The input impedance to the detector

E4B03 (C)
Selectivity can be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a
communications receiver by using what means?
A.  An audio filter
B.  An additional RF amplifier stage
C.  A preselector
D.  An additional IF amplifier stage

E4B04 (D)
What occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is
used in the IF stage of a receiver?
A.  Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
B.  Output-offset overshoot
C.  Cross-modulation distortion
D.  Filter ringing

E4B05 (B)
What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an
amateur RTTY receiver?
A.  100 Hz
B.  300 Hz
C.  6000 Hz
D.  2400 Hz

E4B06 (B)
What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a
single-sideband phone receiver?
A.  1 kHz
B.  2.4 kHz
C.  4.2 kHz
D.  4.8 kHz

E4B07 (D)
What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in
the IF section of a receiver?
A.  Output-offset overshoot
B.  Filter ringing
C.  Thermal-noise distortion
D.  Undesired signals will reach the audio stage

E4B08 (A)
How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with
the bandwidth of a received signal?
A.  It should be slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth
B.  It should be approximately half the received-signal bandwidth
C.  It should be approximately twice the received-signal bandwidth
D.  It should be approximately four times the received-signal
bandwidth

E4B09 (D)
What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an
FM-phone receiver?
A.  1 kHz
B.  2.4 kHz
C.  4.2 kHz
D.  15 kHz

E4B10 (D)
Selectivity can be achieved in the IF circuitry of a communications
receiver by what means?
A.  Vary the supply voltage to the local oscillator circuitry
B.  Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar transistor followed
by a capacitor of the proper value
C.  Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to the audio
stage only
D.  Incorporate a high-Q filter

E4B11 (C)
What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver?
A.  The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to
which the receiver can be tuned
B.  The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver,
referenced to one milliwatt
C.  The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest
tolerable signal without causing audible distortion products
D.  The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the
highest-frequency signal detectable without moving the tuning knob

E4B12 (A)
What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a
communications receiver?
A.  Cross modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from
strong adjacent signals
B.  Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of
ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted
C.  Cross modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio
power to operate the speaker
D.  Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the
strongest received signals

E4B13 (C)
What defines the noise figure of a communications receiver?
A.  The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna
B.  The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz away from the
carrier frequency
C.  The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding
stages of a receiver
D.  The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at
frequencies close to the desired one

E4C  Noise suppression: Ignition noise; Alternator noise (whine);
Electronic motor noise; Static; Line noise

E4C01 (A)
What is one of the most significant problems associated with mobile
transceivers?
A.  Ignition noise
B.  Doppler shift
C.  Radar interference
D.  Mechanical vibrations

E4C02 (A)
What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a
mobile transceiver?
A.  Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
B.  Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other
C.  Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces
D.  Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring

E4C03 (C)
Where can ferrite beads be installed to suppress ignition noise in a
mobile transceiver?
A.  In the resistive high-voltage cable
B.  Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor
C.  In the primary and secondary ignition leads
D.  In the antenna lead to the transceiver

E4C04 (C)
How can ensuring good electrical contact between connecting metal
surfaces in a vehicle reduce ignition noise?
A.  It reduces the frequency of the ignition spark
B.  It helps radiate the ignition noise away from the vehicle
C.  It encourages lower frequency electrical resonances in the vehicle
D.  It reduces static buildup on the vehicle body

E4C05 (B)
How can alternator whine be minimized?
A.  By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the
longest possible path
B.  By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the
shortest possible path
C.  By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's DC
power lead to the vehicle's electrical system
D.  By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead

E4C06 (D)
How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile
alternator be suppressed?
A.  By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead
and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
B.  By connecting the radio to the battery by the longest possible path
and installing a blocking capacitor in both leads
C.  By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power
lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
D.  By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and
by installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads

E4C07 (B)
What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
A.  Sunspots
B.  Thunderstorms
C.  Airplanes
D.  Meteor showers

E4C08 (C)
How can you determine if a line-noise interference problem is being
generated within your home?
A.  Check the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer
B.  Observe the AC waveform on an oscilloscope
C.  Turn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a battery-operated
radio
D.  Observe the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer

E4C09 (B)
How can you reduce noise from an electric motor?
A.  Install a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor
B.  Install a brute-force, AC-line filter in series with the motor
leads
C.  Install a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
D.  Use a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to
power the motor

E4C10 (A)
What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio
transmitter?
A.  A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
B.  An electrical-sparking signal
C.  A differential-mode signal at the AC-line frequency
D.  Harmonics of the AC-line frequency

E4C11 (B)
What type of equipment cannot be used to locate power line noise?
A.  An AM receiver with a directional antenna
B.  An FM receiver with a directional antenna
C.  A hand-held RF sniffer
D.  An ultrasonic transducer, amplifier and parabolic reflector

E4D  Direction finding: Techniques and equipment; Fox hunting

E4D01 (A)
What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction
finding?
A.  It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop
B.  It is non-rotatable
C.  It receives equally well in all directions
D.  It is practical for use only on VHF bands

E4D02 (B)
What pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna?
A.  One which is non-cardioid
B.  One with good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios
C.  One with good top-to-bottom and side-to-side ratios
D.  One with shallow nulls

E4D03 (C)
What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
A.  The geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves from the signal
source are used to locate the source
B.  A fixed receiving station plots three beam headings from the
signal source on a map
C.  Beam headings from several receiving stations are used to plot the
signal source on a map
D.  A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot
the location of the signal source

E4D04 (D)
Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction
finding?
A.  It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal
B.  It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation
C.  It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern
nulls
D.  It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals

E4D05 (A)
What is a sense antenna?
A.  A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid
reception pattern
B.  A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid
reception pattern
C.  A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a
omnidirectional reception pattern
D.  A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a
omnidirectional reception pattern

E4D06 (D)
What type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave reception in radio
direction finding?
A.  A log-periodic dipole array
B.  An isotropic antenna
C.  A circularly-polarized antenna
D.  An Adcock antenna

E4D07 (C)
What is a loop antenna?
A.  A large circularly-polarized antenna
B.  A small coil of wire tightly wound around a ferrite core
C.  Several turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
D.  Any antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of
wire

E4D08 (D)
How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased?
A.  By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
B.  By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing
the area of the loop structure
C.  By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the
area of the loop structure
D.  By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the
area of the loop structure

E4D09 (B)
Why is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern desirable for a
direction-finding system?
A.  The broad-side responses of the cardioid pattern can be aimed at
the desired station
B.  The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction
of the desired station
C.  The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the
direction of the desired station
D.  The high-radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful for
short-distance direction finding

E4D10 (C)
What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding?
A.  Homogeneous terrain
B.  Smooth grassy terrain
C.  Varied terrain
D.  Terrain with no buildings or mountains

E4D11 (A)
What is the activity known as fox hunting?
A.  Amateurs using receivers and direction-finding techniques attempt
to locate a hidden transmitter
B.  Amateurs using transmitting equipment and direction-finding
techniques attempt to locate a hidden receiver
C.  Amateurs helping the government track radio-transmitter collars
attached to animals
D.  Amateurs assemble stations using generators and portable antennas
to test their emergency communications skills

SUBELEMENT E5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [6 exam questions - 6 groups]

E5A  Photoconductive principles and effects

E5A01 (B)
What is photoconductivity?
A.  The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
B.  The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
junction
C.  The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
D.  The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
junction

E5A02 (A)
What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when
light shines on it?
A.  It increases
B.  It decreases
C.  It stays the same
D.  It becomes temperature dependent

E5A03 (D)
What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material when
light shines on it?
A.  It increases
B.  It becomes temperature dependent
C.  It stays the same
D.  It decreases

E5A04 (C)
What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction when
light shines on it?
A.  It stays the same
B.  It becomes temperature dependent
C.  It increases
D.  It decreases

E5A05 (D)
What is an optocoupler?
A.  A resistor and a capacitor
B.  A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
C.  An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
D.  An LED and a phototransistor

E5A06 (A)
What is an optoisolator?
A.  An LED and a phototransistor
B.  A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when
exposed to light
C.  An LED and a capacitor
D.  An LED and a solar cell

E5A07 (B)
What is an optical shaft encoder?
A.  An array of neon or LED indicators whose light transmission path
is controlled by a rotating wheel
B.  An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is
controlled by a rotating wheel
C.  An array of neon or LED indicators mounted on a rotating wheel in
a coded pattern
D.  An array of optocouplers mounted on a rotating wheel in a coded
pattern

E5A08 (D)
What characteristic of a crystalline solid will photoconductivity
change?
A.  The capacitance
B.  The inductance
C.  The specific gravity
D.  The resistance

E5A09 (C)
Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when
visible light shines on it?
A.  Potassium nitrate
B.  Lead sulfide
C.  Cadmium sulfide
D.  Sodium chloride

E5A10 (B)
Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when
infrared light shines on it?
A.  Potassium nitrate
B.  Lead sulfide
C.  Cadmium sulfide
D.  Sodium chloride

E5A11 (A)
Which material is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A.  A crystalline semiconductor
B.  An ordinary metal
C.  A heavy metal
D.  A liquid semiconductor

E5B  Exponential charge/discharge curves (time constants): Definition;
Time constants in RL and RC circuits

E5B01 (B)
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC
circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?
A.  An exponential rate of one
B.  One time constant
C.  One exponential period
D.  A time factor of one

E5B02 (A)
What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL
circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value?
A.  One time constant
B.  An exponential period of one
C.  A time factor of one
D.  One exponential rate

E5B03 (D)
What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an
RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored
charge?
A.  One discharge period
B.  An exponential discharge rate of one
C.  A discharge factor of one
D.  One time constant

E5B04 (C)
The capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the
supply voltage after two time constants?
A.  36.8%
B.  63.2%
C.  86.5%
D.  95%

E5B05 (D)
The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the
starting voltage after two time constants?
A.  86.5%
B.  63.2%
C.  36.8%
D.  13.5%

E5B06 (A)
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad
capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series?
A.  47 seconds
B.  101.1 seconds
C.  103 seconds
D.  220 seconds

E5B07 (D)
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad
capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?
A.  47 seconds
B.  101.1 seconds
C.  103 seconds
D.  220 seconds

E5B08 (C) (4BE-2B.12)
What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad
capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
A.  47 seconds
B.  80 seconds
C.  103 seconds
D.  220 seconds

E5B09 (A)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to
7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
A.  0.02 seconds
B.  0.08 seconds
C.  450 seconds
D.  1350 seconds

E5B10 (B)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to
0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
A.  0.02 seconds
B.  0.08 seconds
C.  450 seconds
D.  1350 seconds

E5B11 (C)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to
294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is
connected across it?
A.  0.02 seconds
B.  0.08 seconds
C.  450 seconds
D.  1350 seconds

E5C  Impedance diagrams: Basic principles of Smith charts

E5C01 (A)
What type of graph can be used to calculate impedance along
transmission lines?
A.  A Smith chart
B.  A logarithmic chart
C.  A Jones chart
D.  A radiation pattern chart

E5C02 (B)
What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
A.  Voltage and current circles
B.  Resistance and reactance circles
C.  Voltage and current lines
D.  Resistance and reactance lines

E5C03 (C)
What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith chart?
A.  Beam headings and radiation patterns
B.  Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
C.  Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
D.  Circuit gain calculations

E5C04 (C)
What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith chart?
A.  Resistance and voltage
B.  Reactance and voltage
C.  Resistance and reactance
D.  Voltage and impedance

E5C05 (A)
What type of chart is shown in Figure E5-1?
A.  Smith chart
B.  Free-space radiation directivity chart
C.  Vertical-space radiation pattern chart
D.  Horizontal-space radiation pattern chart

E5C06 (B)
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the name for the
large outer circle bounding the coordinate portion of the chart?
A.  Prime axis
B.  Reactance axis
C.  Impedance axis
D.  Polar axis

E5C07 (D)
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the only straight
line shown?
A.  The reactance axis
B.  The current axis
C.  The voltage axis
D.  The resistance axis

E5C08 (C)
What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith chart?
A.  Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
B.  Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
C.  Reassigning resistance values with regard to the prime center
D.  Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

E5C09 (D)
What are the curved lines on a Smith chart?
A.  Portions of current circles
B.  Portions of voltage circles
C.  Portions of resistance circles
D.  Portions of reactance circles

E5C10 (A)
What is the third family of circles, which are added to a Smith chart
during the process of solving problems?
A.  Standing-wave ratio circles
B.  Antenna-length circles
C.  Coaxial-length circles
D.  Radiation-pattern circles

E5C11 (B)
How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
A.  In portions of transmission line electrical frequency
B.  In portions of transmission line electrical wavelength
C.  In portions of antenna electrical wavelength
D.  In portions of antenna electrical frequency

E5D  Impedance of RLC networks at specified frequencies

E5D01 (A)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm
resistor at 30 MHz?
A.  20 + j19
B.  20 - j19
C.  19 + j20
D.  19 - j20

E5D02 (A)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm
resistor at 5 MHz?
A.  30 + j3
B.  30 - j3
C.  3 + j30
D.  3 - j30

E5D03 (A)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor
at 500 MHz?
A.  40 + j31,400
B.  40 - j31,400
C.  31,400 + j40
D.  31,400 - j40

E5D04 (C)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4,000-ohm resistor at 500
kHz?
A.  2490 ohms, /__51.5_degrees__
B.  4000 ohms, /__38.5_degrees__
C.  2490 ohms, /__-51.5_degrees__
D.  5112 ohms, /__-38.5_degrees__

E5D05 (B)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm
resistor at 500 kHz?
A.  318 - j400
B.  400 - j318
C.  400 + j318
D.  318 + j400

E5D06 (C)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 50-ohm resistor and a 140-picofarad capacitor at 7
MHz?
A.  162 - j50
B.  212 - j162
C.  50 - j162
D.  50 + j162

E5D07 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms,
and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?
A.  6.4 ohms /_53 degrees
B.  5 ohms /_37 degrees
C.  5 ohms /_45 degrees
D.  10 ohms /_-51 degrees

E5D08 (B)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series
circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor
at 14 MHz?
A.  Point 2
B.  Point 4
C.  Point 5
D.  Point 6

E5D09 (B)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series
circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor
at 3.505 MHz?
A.  Point 1
B.  Point 3
C.  Point 7
D.  Point 8

E5D10 (A)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series
circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor
at 21.200 MHz?
A.  Point 1
B.  Point 3
C.  Point 7
D.  Point 8

E5D11 (D)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series
circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor
and a 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
A.  Point 1
B.  Point 3
C.  Point 5
D.  Point 8

E5E  Impedances and phase angles of series and parallel circuits

E5E01 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A.  121 ohms, /__35_degrees__
B.  141 ohms, /__45_degrees__
C.  161 ohms, /__55_degrees__
D.  181 ohms, /__65_degrees__

E5E02 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a
100-ohm resistor all connected in series?
A.  100 ohms, /__90_degrees__
B.  10 ohms, /__0_degrees__
C.  10 ohms, /__100_degrees__
D.  100 ohms, /__0_degrees__

E5E03 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
A.  240 ohms, /__36.9_degrees__
B.  240 ohms, /__-36.9_degrees__
C.  500 ohms, /__53.1_degrees__
D.  500 ohms, /__-53.1_degrees__

E5E04 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a
400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
A.  500 ohms, /__37_degrees__
B.  400 ohms, /__27_degrees__
C.  300 ohms, /__17_degrees__
D.  200 ohms, /__10_degrees__

E5E05 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
A.  240 ohms, /__36.9_degrees___
B.  240 ohms, /__-36.9_degrees__
C.  500 ohms, /__53.1_degrees__
D.  500 ohms, /__-53.1_degrees__

E5E06 (B)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm
resistor at 30 kHz?
A.  200 - j188
B.  200 + j188
C.  188 - j200
D.  188 + j200

E5E07 (C)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 10-millihenry inductor in series with a 600-ohm
resistor at 10 kHz?
A.  628 + j600
B.  628 - j600
C.  600 + j628
D.  600 - j628

E5E08 (B)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network
comprised of a 0.1-microfarad capacitor in series with a 40-ohm
resistor at 50 kHz?
A.  40 + j32
B.  40 - j32
C.  32 - j40
D.  32 + j40

E5E09 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A.  121 ohms, /__-25_degrees__
B.  191 ohms, /__-85_degrees__
C.  161 ohms, /__-65_degrees__
D.  141 ohms, /__-45_degrees__
E5E10 (C)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
A.  31 ohms, /__-15_degrees__
B.  51 ohms, /__-25_degrees__
C.  71 ohms, /__-45_degrees__
D.  91 ohms, /__-65_degrees__

E5E11 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of
a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
A.  400 ohms, /__27_degrees__
B.  500 ohms, /__37_degrees__
C.  500 ohms, /__47_degrees__
D.  700 ohms, /__57_degrees__

E5F  Algebraic operations using complex numbers: Rectangular
coordinates (real and imaginary parts); Polar coordinates (magnitude
and angle)

E5F01 (A)
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a
circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?
A.  The voltage or current associated with the resistive component
B.  The voltage or current associated with the reactive component
C.  The sum of the reactive and resistive components
D.  The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5F02 (B)
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a
circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?
A.  The voltage or current associated with the resistive component
B.  The voltage or current associated with the reactive component
C.  The sum of the reactive and resistive components
D.  The difference between the resistive and reactive components

E5F03 (C)
What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on
a graph using rectangular coordinates?
A.  The horizontal and inverted axes
B.  The vertical and inverted axes
C.  The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
D.  The phase angle with respect to its prime center

E5F04 (D)
If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate
system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph
on the horizontal line, what do you know about the circuit?
A.  It has to be a direct current circuit
B.  It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
C.  It contains resistance and inductive reactance
D.  It is equivalent to a pure resistance

E5F05 (B)
Why would you plot the impedance of a circuit using the polar coordinate
system?
A.  To display the data on an "X-Y" chart
B.  To give a visual representation of the phase angle
C.  To graphically represent the DC component
D.  To show the reactance which is present

E5F06 (D)
What coordinate system can be used to display the resistive, inductive,
and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance?
A.  Maidenhead grid
B.  National Bureau of Standards
C.  Faraday
D.  Rectangular

E5F07 (D)
What coordinate system can be used to display the phase angle of a
circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
A.  Maidenhead grid
B.  National Bureau of Standards
C.  Faraday
D.  Polar

E5F08 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100
ohms impedance?
A.  141 ohms /__-45_degrees__
B.  100 ohms /__45_degrees__
C.  100 ohms /__-45_degrees__
D.  141 ohms /__45_degrees__

E5F09 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an
admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
A.  5.03 x 10(-5) ohms /__45_degrees__
B.  141 ohms /__-45_degrees__
C.  19,900 ohms /__-45_degrees__
D.  141 ohms /__45_degrees__

E5F10 (C)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has
an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
A.  173 - j100 ohms
B.  200 + j100 ohms
C.  173 + j100 ohms
D.  200 - j100 ohms

E5F11 (A)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the admittance of a circuit that has
an impedance of 240 ohms at 36.9 degrees?
A.  3.33 x 10(-3) - j2.50 x 10(-3) siemens
B.  3.33 x 10(-3) + j2.50 x 10(-3) siemens
C.  192 + j144 siemens
D.  3.33 - j2.50 siemens

SUBELEMENT E6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [4 exam questions - 4 groups]

E6A  Field-effect transistors (FETs): Enhancement mode; Depletion
mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel

E6A01 (D)
What is an enhancement-mode FET?
A.  An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate
B.  An FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate voltage is
zero
C.  An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
D.  An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate voltage

E6A02 (A)
What is a depletion-mode FET?
A.  An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a current
flows with zero gate voltage
B.  An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate voltage
is zero
C.  An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate voltage
D.  An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate

E6A03 (B)
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel MOSFET?
A.  1
B.  2
C.  3
D.  4

E6A04 (B)
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel MOSFET?
A.  2
B.  3
C.  4
D.  5

E6A05 (B)
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate
MOSFET?
A.  2
B.  4
C.  5
D.  6

E6A06 (C)
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel dual-gate
MOSFET?
A.  2
B.  4
C.  5
D.  6

E6A07 (D)
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel junction
FET?
A.  1
B.  2
C.  3
D.  6

E6A08 (D)
What are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
A.  Gate 1, gate 2, drain
B.  Emitter, base, collector
C.  Emitter, base 1, base 2
D.  Gate, drain, source

E6A09 (A)
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction
FET?
A.  1
B.  2
C.  3
D.  6

E6A10 (D)
Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes?
A.  To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias
gate voltage
B.  To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
C.  To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device
from overheating
D.  To prevent the gate insulation from being punctured by small static
charges or excessive voltages

E6A11 (C)
What do the initials CMOS stand for?
A.  Common mode oscillating system
B.  Complementary mica-oxide silicon
C.  Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
D.  Complementary metal-oxide substrate

E6A12 (C)
How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with
that of a bipolar transistor?
A.  They cannot be compared without first knowing the supply voltage
B.  An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input
impedance
C.  An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input
impedance
D.  The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same

E6B  Operational amplifiers; Phase-locked loops

E6B01 (A)
What is an operational amplifier?
A.  A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose
characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
B.  A high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose characteristics are
determined by components external to the amplifier
C.  An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency-
modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
D.  A program subroutine that calculates the gain of an RF amplifier

E6B02 (B)
What would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp?
A.  Zero input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat
frequency response
B.  Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat
frequency response
C.  Zero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat
frequency response
D.  Infinite input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain,
flat frequency response

E6B03 (A)
What determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?
A.  The external feedback network
B.  The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage
C.  The power supply voltage
D.  The PNP collector load

E6B04 (C)
What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?
A.  The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
B.  The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the
input voltage required in the following stage
C.  The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp
in a closed-loop condition
D.  The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp
in an open-loop condition

E6B05 (D)
What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?
A.  100 ohms
B.  1000 ohms
C.  Very low
D.  Very high

E6B06 (A)
What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?
A.  Very low
B.  Very high
C.  100 ohms
D.  1000 ohms

E6B07 (D)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an operational
amplifier?
A.  1
B.  3
C.  5
D.  6

E6B08 (C)
What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
A.  An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance
modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
B.  An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
C.  An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass
filter and voltage-controlled oscillator
D.  An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier
with a differential input

E6B09 (D)
What functions are performed by a phase-locked loop?
A.  Wideband AF and RF power amplification
B.  Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
C.  Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
D.  Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation

E6B10 (B)
What is the name of a circuit that compares the difference of the output
from a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and
produces an error voltage that changes the VCO's frequency?
A.  A doubly balanced mixer
B.  A phase-locked loop
C.  A differential voltage amplifier
D.  A variable frequency oscillator

E6B11 (A)
What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?
A.  The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
B.  The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
C.  The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
D.  The range of time it takes the circuit to lock

E6C  TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS digital integrated
circuits; Gates

E6C01 (C)
What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated
circuits?
A.  12 volts
B.  1.5 volts
C.  5 volts
D.  13.6 volts

E6C02 (A)
What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left
open?
A.  A high-logic state
B.  A low-logic state
C.  The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or
low-logic states
D.  Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored

E6C03 (A)
What level of input voltage is high in a TTL device operating with a
5-volt power supply?
A.  2.0 to 5.5 volts
B.  1.5 to 3.0 volts
C.  1.0 to 1.5 volts
D.  -5.0 to -2.0 volts

E6C04 (C)
What level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating with a
5-volt power-supply?
A.  -2.0 to -5.5 volts
B.   2.0 to 5.5 volts
C.   0.0 to 0.8 volts
D.  -0.8 to 0.4 volts

E6C05 (B)
What is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices?
A.  Small size
B.  Low power consumption
C.  Low cost
D.  Ease of circuit design

E6C06 (C)
Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on
the input signal or power supply?
A.  Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
B.  The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply
voltage
C.  The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply
voltage
D.  Input signals are stronger

E6C07 (A)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
A.  1
B.  2
C.  3
D.  4

E6C08 (B)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
A.  1
B.  2
C.  3
D.  4

E6C09 (B)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
A.  2
B.  3
C.  4
D.  6

E6C10 (D)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
A.  1
B.  2
C.  3
D.  4

E6C11 (C)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NOT gate?
A.  2
B.  4
C.  5
D.  6

E6D  Vidicon and cathode-ray tube devices; Charge-coupled devices
(CCDs); Liquid crystal displays (LCDs)

E6D01 (C)
What is the name for the vacuum tube commonly found in amateur television
cameras?
A.  A traveling-wave tube
B.  A klystron tube
C.  A vidicon tube
D.  A cathode-ray tube

E6D02 (D)
How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon?
A.  By varying the beam voltage
B.  By varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids inside the tube
C.  By varying the beam current
D.  By varying electromagnetic fields

E6D03 (D)
What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waves are to be
displayed on the screen?
A.  Electromagnetic
B.  Tubular
C.  Radar
D.  Electrostatic

E6D04 (D)
What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?
A.  The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is
turned on
B.  The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of
ambient light
C.  The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying
conditions
D.  The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is
turned off

E6D05 (A)
If a cathode ray tube (CRT) is designed to operate with an anode voltage
of 25,000 volts, what will happen if the anode voltage is increased to
35,000 volts?
A.  The image size will decrease and the tube will produce X-rays
B.  The image size will increase and the tube will produce X-rays
C.  The image will become larger and brighter
D.  There will be no apparent change

E6D06 (B)
Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to
generate X-rays?
A.  The heater voltage
B.  The anode voltage
C.  The operating temperature
D.  The operating frequency

E6D07 (C)
Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
A.  It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
B.  It can be used to make an audio delay line
C.  It can be used as an analog-to-digital converter
D.  It samples and stores analog signals

E6D08 (C)
Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
A.  Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
B.  It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
C.  It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input
to the output
D.  It is used in a battery charger circuit

E6D09 (A)
What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video
camera?
A.  It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
B.  It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
C.  It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges
corresponding to the image
D.  It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF
signal

E6D10 (B)
What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
A.  A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays
its fundamental frequency
B.  A display that uses a crystalline liquid to change the way light is
refracted
C.  A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
D.  A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim
light

E6D11 (A)
What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices?
A.  They consume low power
B.  They can display changes instantly
C.  They are visible in all light conditions
D.  They can be easily interchanged with other display devices

SUBELEMENT E7 - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [4 exam questions - 4 groups]

E7A  Digital logic circuits: Flip flops; Astable and monostable
multivibrators; Gates (AND, NAND, OR, NOR); Positive and negative logic

E7A01 (C)
What is a bistable multivibrator circuit?
A.  An "AND" gate
B.  An "OR" gate
C.  A flip-flop
D.  A clock

E7A02 (C)
How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses
applied to the input of a "T" flip-flop circuit?
A.  None
B.  One
C.  Two
D.  Four

E7A03 (B)
The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type
of digital circuit?
A.  A free-running multivibrator
B.  A bistable multivibrator
C.  An OR gate
D.  An astable multivibrator

E7A04 (B)
How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
A.  1
B.  2
C.  4
D.  8

E7A05 (D)
What is the characteristic function of an astable multivibrator?
A.  It alternates between two stable states
B.  It alternates between a stable state and an unstable state
C.  It blocks either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and passes the other
D.  It alternates between two unstable states

E7A06 (A)
What is the characteristic function of a monostable multivibrator?
A.  It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns
after a set time to its original state
B.  It is a "clock" that produces a continuous square wave oscillating
between 1 and 0
C.  It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
D.  It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in
the input voltage

E7A07 (B)
What logical operation does an AND gate perform?
A.  It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"1"
B.  It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"1"
C.  It produces a logic "1" at its output if only one input is a logic
"1"
D.  It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7A08 (D)
What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
A.  It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic
"0"
B.  It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic
"1"
C.  It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its
inputs are logic "1"
D.  It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic
"1"

E7A09 (A)
What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
A.  It produces a logic "1" at its output if any input is or all inputs
are logic "1"
B.  It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
C.  It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
D.  It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7A10 (C)
What logical operation does a NOR gate perform?
A.  It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"0"
B.  It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"1"
C.  It produces a logic "0" at its output if any input is or all inputs
are logic "1"
D.  It produces a logic "1" at its output only when none of its inputs are
logic "0"

E7A11 (C)
What is a truth table?
A.  A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an
op-amp
B.  A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is
true
C.  A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that
characterize the function of a digital device
D.  A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an
op-amp

E7A12 (D)
In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?
A.  A low level
B.  A positive-transition level
C.  A negative-transition level
D.  A high level

E7A13 (A)
In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?
A.  A low level
B.  A positive-transition level
C.  A negative-transition level
D.  A high level

E7B  Digital frequency divider circuits; Frequency marker generators;
Frequency counters

E7B01 (D)
What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
A.  It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop
B.  It multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the
operating frequency
C.  It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
D.  It divides an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the
operating frequency

E7B02 (B)
How many states does a decade counter digital IC have?
A.  2
B.  10
C.  20
D.  100

E7B03 (A)
What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
A.  It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
B.  It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED
display
C.  It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
D.  It adds two decimal numbers

E7B04 (C)
What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-controlled
marker generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
A.  An emitter-follower
B.  Two frequency multipliers
C.  Two flip-flops
D.  A voltage divider

E7B05 (B)
If a 1-MHz oscillator is used with a divide-by-ten circuit to make a
marker generator, what will the output be?
A.  A 1-MHz sinusoidal signal with harmonics every 100 kHz
B.  A 100-kHz signal with harmonics every 100 kHz
C.  A 1-MHz square wave with harmonics every 1 MHz
D.  A 100-kHz signal modulated by a 10-kHz signal

E7B06 (D)
What is a crystal-controlled marker generator?
A.  A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of
frequencies
B.  An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's
location relative to the inner and outer markers at airports
C.  A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude can
be varied over a wide range
D.  A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of reference
signals at known frequency intervals

E7B07 (A)
What type of circuit does NOT make a good marker generator?
A.  A sinusoidal crystal oscillator
B.  A crystal oscillator followed by a class C amplifier
C.  A TTL device wired as a crystal oscillator
D.  A crystal oscillator and a frequency divider

E7B08 (C)
What is the purpose of a marker generator?
A.  To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
B.  To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
C.  To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
D.  To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7B09 (A)
What does the accuracy of a frequency counter depend on?
A.  The internal crystal reference
B.  A voltage-regulated power supply with an unvarying output
C.  Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
D.  Proper balancing of the power-supply diodes

E7B10 (C)
How does a frequency counter determine the frequency of a signal?
A.  It counts the total number of pulses in a circuit
B.  It monitors a WWV reference signal for comparison with the measured
signal
C.  It counts the number of input pulses in a specific period of time
D.  It converts the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is
proportional to the frequency

E7B11 (A)
What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
A.  To indicate the frequency of the strongest input signal which is
within the counter's frequency range
B.  To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency
intervals
C.  To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
D.  To compare the difference between the input and a voltage-controlled
oscillator and produce an error voltage

E7C  Active audio filters: Characteristics; Basic circuit design;
Preselector applications

E7C01 (B)
What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC
active filter?
A.  The values of capacitances and resistances built into the op-amp
B.  The values of capacitances and resistances external to the op-amp
C.  The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
D.  The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply

E7C02 (C)
What causes ringing in a filter?
A.  The slew rate of the filter
B.  The bandwidth of the filter
C.  The filter shape, as measured in the frequency domain
D.  The gain of the filter

E7C03 (D)
What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an
audio filter?
A.  Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can LC
elements
B.  Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
C.  Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
D.  Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

E7C04 (C)
What type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC active filter
circuit?
A.  Electrolytic
B.  Disc ceramic
C.  Polystyrene
D.  Paper dielectric

E7C05 (A)
How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a
multisection op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
A.  Restrict both gain and Q
B.  Restrict gain, but increase Q
C.  Restrict Q, but increase gain
D.  Increase both gain and Q

E7C06 (A) 4BG-3B.4
What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an
op-amp?
A.  Bandpass characteristic
B.  Desired current gain
C.  Temperature coefficient
D.  Output-offset overshoot

E7C07 (B)
The design of a preselector involves a trade-off between bandwidth and
what other factor?
A.  The amount of ringing
B.  Insertion loss
C.  The number of parts
D.  The choice of capacitors or inductors

E7C08 (A)
When designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range and
Q, what steps are typically followed when selecting the external
components?
A.  Standard capacitor values are chosen first, the resistances are
calculated, then resistors of the nearest standard value are used
B.  Standard resistor values are chosen first, the capacitances are
calculated, then capacitors of the nearest standard value are used
C.  Standard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is
tested, then additional resistors are added to make any adjustments
D.  Standard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is
tested, then additional capacitors are added to make any adjustments

E7C09 (C)
When designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range and
Q, why are the external capacitance values usually chosen first, then the
external resistance values calculated?
A.  An op-amp will perform as an active filter using only standard
external capacitance values
B.  The calculations are easier to make with known capacitance values
rather than with known resistance values
C.  Capacitors with unusual capacitance values are not widely available,
so standard values are used to begin the calculations
D.  The equations for the calculations can only be used with known
capacitance values

E7C10 (D)
What are the principal uses of an op-amp RC active filter in amateur
circuitry?
A.  High-pass filters used to block RFI at the input to receivers
B.  Low-pass filters used between transmitters and transmission lines
C.  Filters used for smoothing power-supply output
D.  Audio filters used for receivers

E7C11 (D)
Where should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed in an amateur
receiver?
A.  In the IF strip, immediately before the detector
B.  In the audio circuitry immediately before the speaker or phone jack
C.  Between the balanced modulator and frequency multiplier
D.  In the low-level audio stages

E7D  Integrated operational amplifiers: Inverting amp; Noninverting
amplifiers; Voltage gain; Frequency response; FET amplifier circuits;
Single-stage amplifier applications

E7D01 (A)
What is the phase relationship between the input and output signals of an
inverting op-amp circuit?
A.  180 degrees out of phase
B.  In phase
C.  90 degrees out of phase
D.  60 degrees out of phase

E7D02 (B)
What is the phase relationship between the input and output signals of a
noninverting op-amp circuit?
A.  180 degrees out of phase
B.  In phase
C.  90 degrees out of phase
D.  60 degrees out of phase

E7D03 (D)
What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1
is 1000 ohms and RF is 100 kilohms?
A.  0.01
B.  1
C.  10
D.  100

E7D04 (C)
What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1
is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
A.  1
B.  0.03
C.  38
D.  76

E7D05 (B)
What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1
is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
A.  28
B.  14
C.  7
D.  0.07

E7D06 (C)
What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1
is 10 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
A.  0.00021
B.  9400
C.  4700
D.  2350

E7D07 (D)
How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary
with frequency?
A.  It increases linearly with increasing frequency
B.  It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
C.  It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
D.  It does not vary with frequency

E7D08 (B)
What essentially determines the input impedance of a FET common-source
amplifier?
A.  The resistance between the drain and substrate
B.  The gate-biasing network
C.  The resistance between the source and drain
D.  The resistance between the source and substrate

E7D09 (A)
What essentially determines the output impedance of a FET common-source
amplifier?
A.  The drain resistor
B.  The input impedance of the FET
C.  The drain supply voltage
D.  The gate supply voltage

E7D10 (A)
What will be the voltage at the output in the circuit shown in Figure E7-
1, if R1 is 1,000 ohms and RF is 1,000 ohms when -10 millivolts is
applied to the input?

A.    10 millivolts
B.   100 millivolts
C.   -10 millivolts
D.  -100 millivolts

E7D11 (D)
What will be the voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-1 if R1 is
1000 ohms and RF is 10,000 ohms and 2.3 volts is applied to the input?
A.   2.3 volts
B.    23 volts
C.  -2.3 volts
D.   -23 volts

SUBELEMENT E8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [4 exam questions - 4 groups]

E8A  Pulse modulation: Width; Position

E8A01 (A)
In a pulse-modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power much
greater than its average power?
A.  The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
B.  The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
C.  The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are
generated within the modulator
D.  The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also
amplitude modulated

E8A02 (C)
What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation
system?
A.  A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the
voice waveform at that instant
B.  The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on
the voice waveform at that instant
C.  A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the
voice waveform at that instant
D.  The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the
voice waveform at that instant

E8A03 (D)
In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating
signal vary?
A.  The number of pulses per second
B.  Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses
C.  The duration of the pulses
D.  The time at which each pulse occurs

E8A04 (B)
In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating
signal vary?
A.  Pulse frequency
B.  Pulse duration
C.  Pulse amplitude
D.  Pulse intensity

E8A05 (C)
What is the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the
duration of the transmitted pulse?
A.  Amplitude modulation
B.  Frequency modulation
C.  Pulse-width modulation
D.  Pulse-height modulation

E8A06 (D)
What duration and rate of pulses does a typical pulse modulation
transmitter use?
A.  5-micro second pulses at a 5-kHz rate
B.  5-micro second pulses at a 1-kHz rate
C.  1-micro second pulses at a 5-kHz rate
D.  1-micro second pulses at a 1-kHz rate

E8A07 (A)
How are the pulses of a pulse-modulated signal usually transmitted?
A.  A pulse of relatively short duration is sent; a relatively long
period of time separates each pulse
B.  A pulse of relatively long duration is sent; a relatively short
period of time separates each pulse
C.  A group of short pulses are sent in a relatively short period of
time; a relatively long period of time separates each group
D.  A group of short pulses are sent in a relatively long period of time;
a relatively short period of time separates each group

E8A08 (B)
What common circuit employs a pulse-width modulator?
A.  A passive audio filter
B.  A switching regulator
C.  An impedance-matching network
D.  A flip-flop

E8A09 (A)
What function does a pulse-width modulator perform in a switching
regulator power supply?
A.  It turns the switch transistor on and off at the proper time to
ensure smooth regulation
B.  It increases and decreases the load current at the proper time to
ensure smooth regulation
C.  It increases or decreases the frequency of the input voltage to
ensure that AC pulses are sent at regular intervals to the rectifier
D.  It turns the rectifier on and off at regular intervals to avoid
overheating the power supply

E8B  Digital signals: CW; Baudot; ASCII; Packet; AMTOR; Clover;
Information rate vs bandwidth

E8B01 (D)
What digital code consists of elements having unequal length?
A.  ASCII
B.  AX.25
C.  Baudot
D.  Morse code

E8B02 (B)
What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and
ASCII?
A.  Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot
uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
B.  Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot
uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
C.  Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has
no shift code, ASCII uses one character as a shift code
D.  Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot
has no shift code, ASCII uses one character as a shift code

E8B03 (C)
What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?
A.  It includes built-in error-correction features
B.  It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
C.  It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
D.  It uses one character as a "shift" code to send numeric and special
characters

E8B04 (B)
What digital communications system is well suited for meteor-scatter
communications?
A.  ACSSB
B.  Packet radio
C.  AMTOR
D.  Spread spectrum

E8B05 (D)
What type of error control system does Mode A AMTOR use?
A.  Each character is sent twice
B.  The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence
(FCS) against the transmitted FCS
C.  The receiving station checks the calculated frame parity against the
transmitted parity
D.  The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed

E8B06 (A)
What type of error control system does Mode B AMTOR use?
A.  Each character is sent twice
B.  The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence
(FCS) against the transmitted FCS
C.  The receiving station checks the calculated frame parity against the
transmitted parity
D.  The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed

E8B07 (C)
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code
emission A1A transmission?
A.  Approximately 13 Hz
B.  Approximately 26 Hz
C.  Approximately 52 Hz
D.  Approximately 104 Hz

E8B08 (C)
What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII
emission J2D transmission?
A.  0 Hz
B.  0.3 kHz
C.  0.5 kHz
D.  1.0 kHz

E8B09 (D)
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-Hz shift, 1200-baud ASCII
emission F1D transmission?
A.  1000 Hz
B.  1200 Hz
C.  440 Hz
D.  2400 Hz

E8B10 (A)
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud
ASCII emission F1D transmission?
A.  15.36 kHz
B.  9.6 kHz
C.  4.8 kHz
D.  5.76 kHz

E8C  Amplitude compandored single-sideband (ACSSB); Spread-spectrum
communications

E8C01 (C)
What is amplitude compandored single-sideband?
A.  Reception of single-sideband signal with a conventional CW receiver
B.  Reception of single-sideband signal with a conventional FM receiver
C.  Single-sideband signal incorporating speech compression at the
transmitter and speech expansion at the receiver
D.  Single-sideband signal incorporating speech expansion at the
transmitter and speech compression at the receiver

E8C02 (A)
What is meant by compandoring?
A.  Compressing speech at the transmitter and expanding it at the
receiver
B.  Using an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-length modulation
C.  Combining amplitude and frequency modulation to produce a
single-sideband signal
D.  Detecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal by converting it
to a pulse-modulated signal

E8C03 (A)
What is the purpose of a pilot tone in an amplitude-compandored single-
sideband system?
A.  It permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver
B.  It replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver
C.  It permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-powered
interference
D.  It acts as a beacon to indicate the present propagation
characteristic of the band

E8C04 (D)
What is the approximate frequency of the pilot tone in an amplitude-
compandored single-sideband system?
A.  1 kHz
B.  5 MHz
C.  455 kHz
D.  3 kHz

E8C05 (B)
How many more voice transmissions can be packed into a given frequency
band for amplitude-compandored single-sideband systems over conventional
FM-phone systems?
A.  2
B.  4
C.  8
D.  16

E8C06 (D)
What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the
RF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence?
A.  Amplitude compandored single sideband
B.  AMTOR
C.  Time-domain frequency modulation
D.  Spread-spectrum communication

E8C07 (A)
What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency
of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a
pseudo-random list of channels?
A.  Frequency hopping
B.  Direct sequence
C.  Time-domain frequency modulation
D.  Frequency compandored spread-spectrum

E8C08 (B)
What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a very fast binary bit
stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
A.  Frequency hopping
B.  Direct sequence
C.  Binary phase-shift keying
D.  Phase compandored spread-spectrum

E8C09 (C)
What controls the spreading sequence of an amateur spread-spectrum
transmission?
A.  A frequency-agile linear amplifier
B.  A crystal-controlled filter linked to a high-speed crystal switching
mechanism
C.  A binary linear-feedback shift register
D.  A binary code which varies if propagation changes

E8C10 (D)
Why are spread-spectrum communications so resistant to interference?
A.  Interfering signals are removed by a frequency-agile crystal filter
B.  Spread-spectrum transmitters use much higher power than conventional
carrier-frequency transmitters
C.  Spread-spectrum transmitters can "hunt" for the best carrier
frequency to use within a given RF spectrum
D.  Only signals using the correct spreading sequence are received

E8C11 (B)
Why do spread-spectrum communications interfere so little with
conventional channelized communications in the same band?
A.  A spread-spectrum transmitter avoids channels within the band which
are in use by conventional transmitters
B.  Spread-spectrum signals appear only as low-level noise in
conventional receivers
C.  Spread-spectrum signals change too rapidly to be detected by
conventional receivers
D.  Special crystal filters are needed in conventional receivers to
detect spread-spectrum signals

E8D  Peak amplitude (positive and negative); Peak-to-peak values:
Measurements

E8D01 (D)
What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive excursion of
a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
A.  Peak-to-peak voltage
B.  Inverse peak negative voltage
C.  RMS voltage
D.  Peak positive voltage

E8D02 (D)
What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion of
a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
A.  Peak-to-peak voltage
B.  Inverse peak positive voltage
C.  RMS voltage
D.  Peak negative voltage

E8D03 (A)
What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure by viewing a
pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?
A.  Peak-to-peak voltage
B.  RMS voltage
C.  Average voltage
D.  DC voltage

E8D04 (B)
What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak
voltage amplitude in a symmetrical waveform?
A.  1:1
B.  2:1
C.  3:1
D.  4:1

E8D05 (A)
What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the
signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
A.  Peak voltage
B.  RMS voltage
C.  An average reading power output meter
D.  Resting voltage

E8D06 (D)
To ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power, what kind of
meter would you use to monitor the output signal of a properly adjusted
single-sideband transmitter?
A.  An SWR meter reading in the forward direction
B.  A modulation meter
C.  An average reading power output meter
D.  A peak-reading power output meter

E8D07 (B)
What is the PEP output of a transmitter that has a maximum peak of 30
volts to a 50-ohm load as observed on an oscilloscope?
A.  4.5 watts
B.  9 watts
C.  16 watts
D.  18 watts

E8D08 (A)
What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during
one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
A.  12.2 watts
B.  9.9 watts
C.  24.5 watts
D.  16 watts

E8D09 (D)
If an RMS reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform,
what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
A.  46 volts
B.  92 volts
C.  130 volts
D.  184 volts

E8D10 (D)
If an RMS reading voltmeter reads 34 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what
is the peak voltage?
A. 123 volts
B.  96 volts
C.  55 volts
D.  48 volts

E8D11 (A)
What is the advantage of using a peak-reading voltmeter to monitor the
output of a single-sideband transmitter?
A.  It would be easy to calculate the PEP output of the transmitter
B.  It would be easy to calculate the RMS output power of the transmitter
C.  It would be easy to calculate the SWR on the transmission line
D.  It would be easy to observe the output amplitude variations

SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [4 exam questions - 4 groups]

E9A  Isotropic radiators: Definition; Used as a standard for
comparison; Radiation pattern

E9A01 (A)
What is an isotropic radiator?
A.  A hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna
B.  A directional antenna which is aimed toward the tropical latitudes
C.  An antenna high enough in the air that its directive pattern is
substantially unaffected by the ground beneath it
D.  A directional antenna whose radiation pattern can be aimed in any
compass direction

E9A02 (C)
Which of the following describes an isotropic radiator?
A.  A grounded radiator used to measure earth conductivity
B.  A horizontal radiator used to compare Yagi antennas
C.  A theoretical radiator used to compare other antennas
D.  A spacecraft radiator used to direct signals toward the earth

E9A03 (A)
When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator?
A.  When comparing the gains of directional antennas
B.  When testing a transmission line for standing-wave ratio
C.  When directing a transmission toward the tropical latitudes
D.  When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter

E9A04 (D)
What theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison for antenna
measurements?
A.  Quarter-wave vertical
B.  Yagi
C.  Bobtail curtain
D.  Isotropic radiator

E9A05 (B)
For what purpose would an isotropic radiator be used?
A.  To compare the signal strengths of different transmitters at a
distant point
B.  As a reference for antenna gain measurements
C.  As a dummy load for tuning transmitters
D.  To measure the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line

E9A06 (B)
How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an isotropic
radiator?
A.  About 1.5 dB
B.  About 2.1 dB
C.  About 3.0 dB
D.  About 6.0 dB

E9A07 (A)
How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it
has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
A.  About 3.9 dB
B.  About 6.0 dB
C.  About 8.1 dB
D.  About 10.0 dB

E9A08 (B)
How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it
has 12 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
A.  About 6.1 dB
B.  About 9.9 dB
C.  About 12.0 dB
D.  About 14.1 dB

E9A09 (D)
Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
A.  Quarter-wave vertical
B.  Yagi
C.  Half-wave dipole
D.  Isotropic radiator

E9A10 (C)
Which of the following describes the radiation pattern of an isotropic
radiator?
A.  A tear drop in the vertical plane
B.  A circle in the horizontal plane
C.  A sphere with the antenna in the center
D.  Crossed polarized with a spiral shape

E9A11 (D)
Which of the following describes the directivity of an isotropic
radiator?
A.  Directivity in the E plane
B.  Directivity in the H plane
C.  Directivity in the Z plane
D.  No directivity at all

E9B  Phased vertical antennas; Radiation patterns; Beverage antennas;
Rhombic antennas; Resonant; Nonresonant; Radiation pattern

E9B01 (D)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A.  Unidirectional cardioid
B.  Omnidirectional
C.  Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D.  Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
E9B02 (A)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
A.  Unidirectional cardioid
B.  Figure-8 end-fire
C.  Figure-8 broadside
D.  Omnidirectional

E9B03 (C)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A.  Omnidirectional
B.  Cardioid unidirectional
C.  Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D.  Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

E9B04 (D)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A.  Omnidirectional
B.  Cardioid unidirectional
C.  Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D.  Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

E9B05 (D)
What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/8-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A.  Omnidirectional
B.  Cardioid unidirectional
C.  Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
D.  Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

E9B06 (B)
What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A.  Substantially unidirectional
B.  Elliptical
C.  Cardioid unidirectional
D.  Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas

E9B07 (B)
Which of the following is the best description of a resonant rhombic
antenna?
A.  Unidirectional; four-sided, each side a half-wavelength long;
terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
B.  Bidirectional; four-sided, each side approximately one wavelength
long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection
C.  Four-sided; an LC network at each vertex except for the transmission
connection; tuned to resonate at the operating frequency
D.  Four-sided, each side of a different physical length; traps at each
vertex for changing resonance according to band usage

E9B08 (C)
What is a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
A.  An antenna resonant at approximately double the frequency of the
intended band of operation
B.  An open-ended bidirectional antenna
C.  A unidirectional antenna terminated in a resistance equal to its
characteristic impedance
D.  A horizontal triangular antenna consisting of two adjacent sides and
the long diagonal of a resonant rhombic antenna

E9B09 (A)
What are the advantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
A.  Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio
B.  High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain
C.  Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact size
D.  Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide frequency range

E9B10 (C)
What are the disadvantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
A.  A large area for proper installation and a narrow bandwidth
B.  A large area for proper installation and a low front-to-back ratio
C.  A large area and four sturdy supports for proper installation
D.  A large amount of aluminum tubing and a low front-to-back ratio

E9B11 (B)
What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
A.  It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the
transmitter
B.  It changes the radiation pattern from essentially bidirectional to
essentially unidirectional
C.  It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical
polarization
D.  It decreases the ground loss

E9C  Space and satellite communications antennas: Gain; Beamwidth;
Tracking

E9C01 (A)
What factors determine the receiving antenna gain required at an amateur
satellite station in earth operation?
A.  Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite
B.  Length of transmission line and impedance match between receiver and
transmission line
C.  Preamplifier location on transmission line and presence or absence of
RF amplifier stages
D.  Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit

E9C02 (A)
What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite station
in earth operation?
A.  Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
B.  Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
C.  Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving
antenna
D.  Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio,
satellite transmitter power

E9C03 (B)
What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite station
in telecommand operation?
A.  Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
B.  Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
C.  Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving
antenna
D.  Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio,
satellite transmitter power

E9C04 (C)
How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating
frequency is doubled?
A.  Gain does not change
B.  Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C.  Gain increases 6 dB
D.  Gain increases 3 dB

E9C05 (D)
How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?
A.  It increases geometrically
B.  It increases arithmetically
C.  It is essentially unaffected
D.  It decreases

E9C06 (B)
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 20
dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
A.  10.1 degrees
B.  20.3 degrees
C.  45.0 degrees
D.  60.9 degrees

E9C07 (B)
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 30
dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
A.  3.2 degrees
B.  6.4 degrees
C.  37 degrees
D.  60.4 degrees

E9C08 (C)
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 15
dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
A.  72 degrees
B.  52 degrees
C.  36.1 degrees
D.  3.61 degrees

E9C09 (D)
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 12
dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
A.  34.8 degrees
B.  45.0 degrees
C.  58.0 degrees
D.  51.0 degrees

E9C10 (C)
How is circular polarization produced using linearly polarized antennas?
A.  Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with
the respective elements in parallel planes
B.  Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective
elements in parallel planes
C.  Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven
elements in the same plane, fed 90 degrees out of phase
D.  Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven
elements in the same plane, fed in phase

E9C11 (A)
Why does a satellite communications antenna system for earth operation
need to have rotators for both azimuth and elevation control?
A.  In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth
B.  Because the antennas are large and heavy
C.  In order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid terrestrial
interference
D.  To rotate antenna polarization along the azimuth and elevate the
system towards the satellite

E9D  Matching antennas to feed lines; Characteristics of open and shorted
feed lines: 1/8 wavelength; 1/4 wavelength; 3/8 wavelength; 1/2
wavelength; 1/4 wavelength matching transformers

E9D01 (B)
What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower
impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two
places, spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
A.  The gamma matching system
B.  The delta matching system
C.  The omega matching system
D.  The stub matching system

E9D02 (A)
What system matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the
driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a
wavelength to one side of center?
A.  The gamma matching system
B.  The delta matching system
C.  The omega matching system
D.  The stub matching system

E9D03 (D)
What impedance matching system uses a short perpendicular section of
transmission line connected to the feed line near the antenna?
A.  The gamma matching system
B.  The delta matching system
C.  The omega matching system
D.  The stub matching system

E9D04 (B)
What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in
a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the
20-meter wavelength band?
A.  70 pF
B.  140 pF
C.  200 pF
D.  0.2 pF

E9D05 (D)
What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in
a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the
10-meter wavelength band?
A.  0.2 pF
B.  140 pF
C.  200 pF
D.  70 pF

E9D06 (C)
What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to
a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A.  A capacitive reactance
B.  The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C.  An inductive reactance
D.  The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

E9D07 (C)
What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to
a generator when the line is open at the far end?
A.  The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B.  An inductive reactance
C.  A capacitive reactance
D.  The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage

E9D08 (A)
What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to
a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A.  A very high impedance
B.  A very low impedance
C.  The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
D.  The same as the generator output impedance

E9D09 (B)
What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to
a generator when the line is open at the far end?
A.  A very high impedance
B.  A very low impedance
C.  The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D.  The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage

E9D10 (B)
What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to
a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A.  A very high impedance
B.  A very low impedance
C.  The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D.  The same as the output impedance of the generator

E9D11 (A)
What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to
a generator when the line is open at the far end?
A.  A very high impedance
B.  A very low impedance
C.  The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D.  The same as the output impedance of the generator